Regardless of your career stage, the Certified Associate in Project
Management (CAPM)® is an asset that will distinguish you in the job market and
enhance your credibility and effectiveness working on — or with — project teams.
Organizations with standardized practices attain better results, as shown in our
2015 Pulse of the Profession® report. Because the CAPM® recognizes your
knowledge of the profession’s preeminent global standard, you’ll stand out to
employers and be poised to move ahead.
Project management is a rapidly growing profession. Through 2020, 1.57 million
new jobs will be created each year and qualified practitioners are in demand.
With the CAPM, you’ll be on the fast track to opportunity.
Student Bundle Students can submit one application form to join PMI as a student member and
take the CAPM exam at the member discount rate.
Learn more about becoming a student member.
Who Should Apply? If you’d like to manage larger projects and gain more responsibility or add
project management skills into your current role, then the Certified Associate
in Project Management (CAPM) is right for you.
Gain and Maintain Your CAPM
The certification exam has 150 questions, and you have three hours to complete
it.
To maintain your CAPM, you must retake the exam every five years.
Prerequisites Secondary degree (high school diploma, associate’s degree or the global
equivalent)
23 hours of project management education completed by the time you sit for the
exam. Our Project Management Basics online course fulfills this educational
prerequisite.
QUESTION 1 Which document defines how a project is executed, monitored and controlled,
and closed?
A. Strategic plan
B. Project charter
C. Project management plan
D. Service level agreement
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 Which changes occur in risk and uncertainty as well as the cost of changes
as the life cycle of a typical project progresses?
A. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes increases.
B. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes decreases.
C. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes increases.
D. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes decreases.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 Which tool or technique is used in the Plan Scope Management process?
A. Document analysis
B. Observations
C. Product analysis
D. Expert judgment
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4 Which tool or technique is an examination of industry and specific vendor
capabilities?
A. Independent estimates
B. Market research
C. Analytical techniques
D. Bidder conferences
Correct Answer: B
Section: Volume A
QUESTION 5 An input used in developing the communications management plan is:
A. Communication models.
B. Enterprise environmental factors.
C. Organizational communications.
D. Organizational cultures and styles.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 Regression analysis, failure mode and effect analysis (FMEA), fault tree
analysis (FTA), and trend analysis are examples of which tool or technique?
A. Expert judgment
B. Forecasting methods
C. Earned value management
D. Analytical techniques
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 The Perform Quality Assurance process occurs in which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Initiating
D. Planning
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 Enterprise environmental factors are an input to which process?
A. Control Scope
B. Define Scope
C. Plan Scope Management
D. Collect Requirements
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9 Which process develops options and actions to enhance opportunities and
reduce threats to project objectives?
A. Identify Risks
B. Control Risks
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Plan Risk Responses
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10 The process of establishing the policies, procedures, and documentation for
planning, developing, managing, executing, and controlling the project schedule
is known as:
A. Plan Schedule Management.
B. Develop Project Charter.
C. Develop Schedule.
D. Plan Scope Management.
Citrix Education is pleased to announce the availability of the next
generation Citrix Certified Expert – Virtualization (CCE – V) certification
based on Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops 7. Be among the first to take and pass
the NEW 1Y0-403 Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops 7 Assessment, Design and
Advanced Configurations exam.
With the release of the 1Y0-403 exam, we’re also announcing the discontinuation
of the English version of the 1Y0-402 Citrix XenApp and XenDesktop 7.15
Assessment, Design and Advanced Configurations exam effective June 30, 2020.
What does this mean for you?
Individuals pursuing the Citrix Certified Expert – Virtualization (CCE – V)
certification will have the option of selecting one of two exams to validate
their knowledge, skills and experience until June 30, 2020.
Option 1: Attain the Citrix Certified Professional – Virtualization (CCP – V)
certification
Prepare with the recommended training: CWS-415 Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops
7 Assessment, Design and Advanced Configuration
Review the associated 1Y0-403 exam prep guide
Pass exam 1Y0-403 Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops 7 Assessment, Design and
Advanced Configurations.
Option 2: Attain the Citrix Certified Professional – Virtualization (CCP – V)
certification
Prepare with the recommended training: CWS-415 Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops
7 Assessment, Design and Advanced Configuration
Review the associated 1Y0-402 exam prep guide
Pass exam 1Y0-402 Citrix XenApp and XenDesktop 7.15 Assessment, Design and
Advanced Configurations.
Effective June 30, 2020, with the discontinuation of the English version of the
1Y0-402 exam, Option 1 will be the only valid path to attain the CCE – V
certification.
For individuals who already hold the CCE – V certification, you can update your
certification and stay current by taking and passing only one exam — 1Y0-403 —
or by attending the instructor-led training course CWS-415 Citrix Virtual Apps
and Desktops 7 Assessment, Design and Advanced Configuration. Please note that
the discontinuation of the 1Y0-402 exam will have no effect on your current CCE
– V certification status. Your CCE – V certification will remain valid for three
years from the date attained.
QUESTION 1 Scenario: Currently, the user interface for a Citrix Apps and Desktops
environment is presented in English,
but a planned on-premises expansion in Poland will support 100 new users with a
requirement to use all Polish interfaces.
Two constraints were identified by a Citrix Architect:
Network bandwidth is low and unstable.
Network latency is higher than 300 ms to the existing Site.
How should the architect deploy Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops for these
users?
A. Install a StoreFront server in Poland.
B. Implement Citrix Cloud Gateway in Europe.
C. Add a Satellite Zone to the existing Site.
D. Create a new Site in Poland.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 Scenario: A planning document for deploying a new Citrix Virtual Apps and
Desktops Site specifies that it will
be created with 1 Site and different zones ini each of 3 regions. The IT team
expects that each zone will host
825 concurrent user sessions, with no more than 28 concurrent session launches.
What is the minimum acceptable Site-to-Site bandwidth required between the
Primary Zone and a Satellite Zone?
A. 1 Kbps
B. 200 Mbps
C. 2 Mbps
D. 8 Gbps
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 Scenario: A Citrix Architect designed an active-passive Citrix Virtual Apps
and Desktops environment, where
the passive data center serves as the disaster recovery (DR) data center for all
users. Twelve items have been configured:
Citrix ADC Global Server Load Balancing (GSLB) to provide single URL direction
to the active data center.
GSLB has health monitors configured for the load balanced servers.
Citrix Gateways are on both data centers.
Citrix ADC load balancing occurs for StoreFront and Delivery Controller XML
services.
A single Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops Site exists.
Four Delivery Controllers are members of the Site.
Two Delivery Controllers are members of the Primary Zone in the active data
center.
Two Delivery Controllers are members of the Satellite Zone in the passive data
center.
SQL is deployed in the active data center.
Local Host Cache is enabled.
Two StoreFront servers are deployed in each data center aggregating resources
from the Delivery
Controllers in the respective data center.
Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machines are deployed in both data centers and
configured to register with
Delivery Controllers in their zone.
What would happen if the Delivery Controllers in the primary data center were
turned off?
A. VDA machines from the primary data center would register with the Delivery
Controllers in the passive data center.
B. StoreFront in the primary data center would still be able to launch sessions.
C. GSLB will start redirecting connections to the secondary data center.
D. GSLB will NOT identify that the Delivery Controllers are down and sessions
CANNOT launch.
We have prepared Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops 7 Advanced Administration
(1Y0-312) certification sample questions to make you aware of actual exam
properties. This sample question set provides you with information about the CCP-V
exam pattern, question formate, a difficulty level of questions and time
required to answer each question. To get familiar with Citrix Certified
Professional - Virtualization (CCP-V) exam, we suggest you try our Sample Citrix
1Y0-312 Certification Practice Exam in simulated Citrix certification exam
environment.
To test your knowledge and understanding of concepts with real-time scenario
based Citrix 1Y0-312 questions, we strongly recommend you to prepare and
practice with Premium Citrix CCP-V Certification Practice Exam. The premium
Citrix CCP-V certification practice exam helps you identify topics in which you
are well prepared and topics in which you may need further training to achieving
great score in actual Citrix Certified Professional - Virtualization (CCP-V)
exam.
QUESTION 1 Scenario: There are two domains in an organization: Domain A and Domain B. A
Citrix Engineer configured
SAML authentication for Domain A, without implementing Citrix Federated
Authentication Service (FAS).
While launching the Citrix apps, the Single Sign-on will __________.
A. work for users from Domain A and NOT for users from Domain B
B. work for users from Domain B and NOT for users from Domain A
C. work for the users from Domain A and Domain B
D. NOT work for the users from Domain A and Domain B
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 Scenario: A Citrix Engineer is managing a large environment with multiple
locations. The setup is as follows:
- The setup has a single Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops site with multiple
zones such as a Primary zone and 3 Satellite zones.
-Virtual Delivery Agents (VDAs) are available for all applications in all 3
Satellite zones.
-An application 'app1' has its application database located in Satellite zone.
-As a sovereign mandate, it is desirable that this application database should
NOT be accessible from zones 2 and 3.
-The application does NOT create any database cache and cannot work if the
database is NOT reachable. -
The outage is acceptable for complying with the sovereign mandate.
Which zone preference should the engineer configure to achieve this setup?
A. Mandatory application home to Satellite zone 1
B. User home to Satellite zone 1
C. Mandatory user home to Satellite zone 1
D. Application home to Satellite zone 1
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 Scenario: A Citrix Engineer noticed that a Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops
environment lost connection to the
SQL servers where the Citrix databases are running. Due to this, the Site has
become unmanaged and firsttime users CANNOT connect to their Citrix Virtual Apps
& Desktops resources.
The setup was recently upgraded from Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops 7.11 to
Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops 7.15 CU4.
What should the engineer do to minimize the impact of the SQL outage?
A. Enable Connection Leasing.
B. Enable IntelliCache.
C. Enable Local Host Cache.
D. Configure Citrix Database Cache.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 A Citrix Engineer wants to enable the "Log Off Web Portal When Session is
Launched" feature within
Workspace Environment Management (WEM) transformer settings.
What does the engineer need to do prior to enabling this feature?
A. Set Workspace control to NOT automatically reconnect to the sessions when
users log onto StoreFront.
B. Set Workspace control settings to log off from session when users log off
from StoreFront.
C. Set Workspace control to automatically reconnect to the sessions when users
log onto StoreFront.
D. Set Workspace control settings to NOT log off a session when users log off
from StoreFront.
We have prepared Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops 7 Advanced Administration
(1Y0-312) certification sample questions to make you aware of actual exam
properties. This sample question set provides you with information about the CCP-V
exam pattern, question formate, a difficulty level of questions and time
required to answer each question. To get familiar with Citrix Certified
Professional - Virtualization (CCP-V) exam, we suggest you try our Sample Citrix
1Y0-312 Certification Practice Exam in simulated Citrix certification exam
environment.
To test your knowledge and understanding of concepts with real-time scenario
based Citrix 1Y0-312 questions, we strongly recommend you to prepare and
practice with Premium Citrix CCP-V Certification Practice Exam. The premium
Citrix CCP-V certification practice exam helps you identify topics in which you
are well prepared and topics in which you may need further training to achieving
great score in actual Citrix Certified Professional - Virtualization (CCP-V)
exam.
QUESTION 1 Scenario: There are two domains in an organization: Domain A and Domain B. A
Citrix Engineer configured
SAML authentication for Domain A, without implementing Citrix Federated
Authentication Service (FAS).
While launching the Citrix apps, the Single Sign-on will __________.
A. work for users from Domain A and NOT for users from Domain B
B. work for users from Domain B and NOT for users from Domain A
C. work for the users from Domain A and Domain B
D. NOT work for the users from Domain A and Domain B
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 Scenario: A Citrix Engineer is managing a large environment with multiple
locations. The setup is as follows:
- The setup has a single Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops site with multiple
zones such as a Primary zone and 3 Satellite zones.
-Virtual Delivery Agents (VDAs) are available for all applications in all 3
Satellite zones.
-An application 'app1' has its application database located in Satellite zone.
-As a sovereign mandate, it is desirable that this application database should
NOT be accessible from zones 2 and 3.
-The application does NOT create any database cache and cannot work if the
database is NOT reachable. -
The outage is acceptable for complying with the sovereign mandate.
Which zone preference should the engineer configure to achieve this setup?
A. Mandatory application home to Satellite zone 1
B. User home to Satellite zone 1
C. Mandatory user home to Satellite zone 1
D. Application home to Satellite zone 1
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 Scenario: A Citrix Engineer noticed that a Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops
environment lost connection to the
SQL servers where the Citrix databases are running. Due to this, the Site has
become unmanaged and firsttime users CANNOT connect to their Citrix Virtual Apps
& Desktops resources.
The setup was recently upgraded from Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops 7.11 to
Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops 7.15 CU4.
What should the engineer do to minimize the impact of the SQL outage?
A. Enable Connection Leasing.
B. Enable IntelliCache.
C. Enable Local Host Cache.
D. Configure Citrix Database Cache.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 A Citrix Engineer wants to enable the "Log Off Web Portal When Session is
Launched" feature within
Workspace Environment Management (WEM) transformer settings.
What does the engineer need to do prior to enabling this feature?
A. Set Workspace control to NOT automatically reconnect to the sessions when
users log onto StoreFront.
B. Set Workspace control settings to log off from session when users log off
from StoreFront.
C. Set Workspace control to automatically reconnect to the sessions when users
log onto StoreFront.
D. Set Workspace control settings to NOT log off a session when users log off
from StoreFront.
The AWS Certified DevOps Engineer – Professional exam is intended for
individuals who perform a DevOps engineer role with two or more years of
experience provisioning, operating, and managing AWS environments.
Abilities Validated by the Certification Implement and manage continuous delivery systems and methodologies on AWS
Implement and automate security controls, governance processes, and compliance
validation
Define and deploy monitoring, metrics, and logging systems on AWS
Implement systems that are highly available, scalable, and self-healing on the
AWS platform
Design, manage, and maintain tools to automate operational processes
Recommended Knowledge and Experience Experience developing code in at least one high-level programming language
Experience building highly automated infrastructures
Experience administering operating systems
Understanding of modern development and operations processes and methodologies
Prepare for Your Exam There is no better preparation than hands-on experience. There are many
relevant AWS Training courses and other resources to assist you with acquiring
additional knowledge and skills to prepare for certification. Please review the
exam guide for information about the competencies assessed on the certification
exam.
Introduction The AWS Certified DevOps Engineer – Professional (DOP-CO1) exam validates
technical expertise in provisioning, operating, and managing distributed
application systems on the AWS platform. It is intended for individuals who
perform a DevOps Engineer role.
It validates an examinee’s ability to: Implement and manage continuous delivery systems and methodologies on AWS
Implement and automate security controls, governance processes, and compliance
validation
Define and deploy monitoring, metrics, and logging systems on AWS
Implement systems that are highly available, scalable, and self-healing on the
AWS platform
Design, manage, and maintain tools to automate operational processes
Recommended AWS Knowledge Two or more years’ experience provisioning, operating, and managing AWS
environments
Experience developing code in at least one high-level programming language
Experience building highly automated infrastructures
Experience administering operating systems
Understanding of modern development and operations processes and methodologies
Exam Preparation These training courses and materials may be helpful for examination
preparation:
AWS Training (aws.amazon.com/training) DevOps Engineering on AWS - https://aws.amazon.com/training/course-descriptions/devops-engineering/
There are two types of questions on the examination: Multiple-choice: Has one correct response option and three incorrect
responses (distractors).
Multiple-response: Has two or more correct responses out of five or more
options.
Select one or more responses that best complete the statement or answer the
question. Distractors, or incorrect answers, are response options that an
examinee with incomplete knowledge or skill would likely choose. However, they
are generally plausible responses that fit in the content area defined by the
test objective.
Unanswered questions are scored as incorrect; there is no penalty for guessing.
Unscored Content Your examination may include unscored items that are placed on the test to
gather statistical information. These items are not identified on the form and
do not affect your score.
Exam Results The AWS Certified DevOps Engineer Professional (DOP-C01) is a pass or fail
exam. The examination is scored against a minimum standard established by AWS
professionals who are guided by certification industry best practices and
guidelines.
Your results for the examination are reported as a score from 100-1000, with a
minimum passing score of 750. Your score shows how you performed on the
examination as a whole and whether or not you passed. Scaled scoring models are
used to equate scores across multiple exam forms that may have slightly
different difficulty levels.
Your score report contains a table of classifications of your performance at
each section level. This information is designed to provide general feedback
concerning your examination performance. The examination uses a compensatory
scoring model, which means that you do not need to “pass” the individual
sections, only the overall examination. Each section of the examination has a
specific weighting, so some sections have more questions than others. The table
contains general information, highlighting your strengths and weaknesses.
Exercise caution when interpreting section-level feedback.
Content Outline This exam guide includes weightings, test domains, and objectives only. It
is not a comprehensive listing of the content on this examination. The table
below lists the main content domains and their weightings.
Domain 1: SDLC Automation 22%
Domain 2: Configuration Management and Infrastructure as Code 19%
Domain 3: Monitoring and Logging 15%
Domain 4: Policies and Standards Automation 10%
Domain 5: Incident and Event Response 18%
Domain 6: High Availability, Fault Tolerance, and Disaster Recovery 16%
1.2 Determine source control strategies and how to implement them
1.3 Apply concepts required to automate and integrate testing
1.4 Apply concepts required to build and manage artifacts securely
1.5 Determine deployment/delivery strategies (e.g., A/B, Blue/green, Canary,
Red/black) and how to implement them using AWS Services
Domain 2: Configuration Management and Infrastructure as Code 2.1 Determine deployment services based on deployment needs
2.2 Determine application and infrastructure deployment models based on business
needs
2.3 Apply security concepts in the automation of resource provisioning
2.4 Determine how to implement lifecycle hooks on a deployment
2.5 Apply concepts required to manage systems using AWS configuration management
tools and services
Domain 3: Monitoring and Logging 3.1 Determine how to set up the aggregation, storage, and analysis of logs
and metrics
3.2 Apply concepts required to automate monitoring and event management of an
environment
3.3 Apply concepts required to audit, log, and monitor operating systems,
infrastructures, and applications
3.4 Determine how to implement tagging and other metadata strategies
Domain 4: Policies and Standards Automation 4.1 Apply concepts required to enforce standards for logging, metrics,
monitoring, testing, and security
4.2 Determine how to optimize cost through automation
4.3 Apply concepts required to implement governance strategies
Domain 5: Incident and Event Response 5.1 Troubleshoot issues and determine how to restore operations
5.2 Determine how to automate event management and alerting
5.3 Apply concepts required to implement automated healing
5.4 Apply concepts required to set up event-driven automated actions
Domain 6: High Availability, Fault Tolerance, and Disaster Recovery 6.1 Determine appropriate use of multi-AZ versus multi-region architectures
6.2 Determine how to implement high availability, scalability, and fault
tolerance
6.3 Determine the right services based on business needs (e.g., RTO/RPO, cost)
6.4 Determine how to design and automate disaster recovery strategies
6.5 Evaluate a deployment for points of failure
QUESTION: 1 You have an application which consists of EC2 instances in an Auto Scaling
group. Between a
particular time frame every day, there is an increase in traffic to your
website. Hence users are
complaining of a poor response time on the application. You have configured your
Auto Scaling group
to deploy one new EC2 instance when CPU utilization is greater than 60% for 2
consecutive periods of 5 minutes.
What is the least cost-effective way to resolve this problem?
A. Decrease the consecutive number of collection periods
B. Increase the minimum number of instances in the Auto Scaling group
C. Decrease the collection period to ten minutes
D. Decrease the threshold CPU utilization percentage at which to deploy a new
instance
Answer: B
QUESTION: 2 You have decided that you need to change the instance type of your
production instances which are
running as part of an AutoScaling group. The entire architecture is deployed
using CloudFormation
Template. You currently have 4 instances in Production. You cannot have any
interruption in service
and need to ensure 2 instances are always running during the update? Which of
the options below
listed can be used for this?
A. AutoScalingRollingUpdate
B. AutoScalingScheduledAction
C. AutoScalingReplacingUpdate
D. AutoScalinglntegrationUpdate
Answer: A
QUESTION: 3 You currently have the following setup in AWS
1) An Elastic Load Balancer
2) Auto Scaling Group which launches EC2 Instances
3) AMIs with your code pre-installed
You want to deploy the updates of your app to only a certain number of users.
You want to have a
cost-effective solution. You should also be able to revert back quickly. Which
of the below solutions is the most feasible one?
A. Create a second ELB, and a new Auto Scaling Group assigned a new Launch
Configuration. Create a
new AMI with the updated app. Use Route53 Weighted Round Robin records to adjust
the proportion of traffic hitting the two ELBs.
B. Create new AM Is with the new app. Then use the new EC2 instances in half
proportion to the older instances.
C. Redeploy with AWS Elastic Beanstalk and Elastic Beanstalk versions. Use Route
53 Weighted Round
Robin records to adjust the proportion of traffic hitting the two ELBs
D. Create a full second stack of instances, cut the DNS over to the new stack of
instances, and change the DNS back if a rollback is needed.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 4 Your application is currently running on Amazon EC2 instances behind a load
balancer. Your
management has decided to use a Blue/Green deployment strategy. How should you
implement this for each deployment?
A. Set up Amazon Route 53 health checks to fail over from any Amazon EC2
instance that is currently being deployed to.
B. Using AWS CloudFormation, create a test stack for validating the code, and
then deploy the code
to each production Amazon EC2 instance.
C. Create a new load balancer with new Amazon EC2 instances, carry out the
deployment, and then
switch DNS over to the new load balancer using Amazon Route 53 after testing.
D. Launch more Amazon EC2 instances to ensure high availability, de-register
each Amazon EC2
instance from the load balancer, upgrade it, and test it, and then register it
again with the load balancer.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 5 You have an application running a specific process that is critical to the
application's functionality,
and have added the health check process to your Auto Scaling Group. The
instances are showing
healthy but the application itself is not working as it should. What could be
the issue with the health check, since it is still showing the instances as
healthy.
A. You do not have the time range in the health check properly configured
B. It is not possible for a health check to monitor a process that involves the
application
C. The health check is not configured properly
D. The health check is not checking the application process
To earn the CCBA designation, candidates must: Complete a minimum of 3,750 hours of Business Analysis work experience in
the last 7 years.
Within these 3750 minimum hours required, a minimum of 900 hours must be
completed in each of 2 of the 6 BABOK® Guide Knowledge Areas OR, a minimum of
500 hours must be completed in each of 4 of the 6 BABOK® Guide Knowledge Areas.
Complete a minimum of 21 hours of Professional Development within the last 4
years.
Provide references.
Agree to Code of Conduct.
Agree to Terms and Conditions.
Pass the exam.
CCBA Competencies
Is CCBA for you? The CCBA certificate is for:
Individuals with an ECBA™ designation
Product Managers
Non-BA consultants
Trainers
Hybrid Business Analysis professionals, including: Project Manager, Testers,
Quality Assurance (QA) professionals, Change/Transformation Managers, and
Designers
QUESTION 1 You are currently working on creating the activity list for an initiative in
your organization. What characteristic must be assigned to each task in your
task list?
A. Procurement needs
B. Risk level
C. Unique number
D. Roles and responsibilities
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Each task in the task list should have a unique number to identify the specific
task and it should have a description of what the task is.
Answer: B is incorrect. The risk level is not associated with the task list.
Answer: D is incorrect. Roles and responsibilities are not included directly in
the task list.
Answer: A is incorrect. Procurement needs are not included in the task list.
QUESTION 2 Shelly is the business analyst for her organization and she's working with
Thomas to review the business
requirements. They are discussing the identified requirements, how the
requirements will transition to the
operations, and the longevity of the solution. Thomas is concerned that the
identified requirements may not
map to the desired future state of the organization. What business analysis task
is Shelly facilitating in this scenario?
A. Acceptance evaluation criteria definition
B. Requirements quality assurance
C. Validate requirements
D. Stakeholder management
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Shelly and Thomas are performing the validate requirements task. This task
helps to ensure that the
requirements map to the business goals and objectives, resolve the issue, and
predict the longevity of the requirements to satisfy business needs.
Answer: B is incorrect. There is not a business analysis task called
requirements quality assurance.
Answer: A is incorrect. Acceptance evaluation criteria definition is a task to
ensure that the requirements are
clear and precise enough to create tests and inspect to know that the work has
been completed.
Answer: D is incorrect. Stakeholder management is the management of
stakeholders' issues, conflicts,
queries, concerns, threats, and perceived threats about the requirements.
QUESTION 3 Which of the following are documented approaches to the business analysis
work? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.
A. Deming's Quality Circle
B. Lean
C. Six Sigma
D. Waterfall approach
Correct Answer: B,C,D
Explanation:
The waterfall approach, lean, and Six Sigma are the valid answer for business
analysis approaches.
Answer: A is incorrect. Deming's Quality Circle describes the quality management
approach of plan, do, check, and act. This isn't a business analysis approach.
QUESTION 4 You are the business analyst for your organization and working with the
stakeholders to prioritize the
requirements. The stakeholders are concerned about the financial impact of the
requirements should some of
them fail during the implementation. You would like to rank the risk tolerance
of the stakeholders based on
their comments about the solution and the requirements. The following are the
three categories of risk
tolerance associated with the stakeholders except for which one?
A. Neutrality
B. Mitigation
C. Risk-seeking
D. Risk-aversion
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Mitigation is a risk response that seeks to lower the risk's probability
and/or impact. It is not one of the three categories of risk tolerance.
QUESTION 5 Tracy is a business analyst for her organization and she's gathered and
identified the needed requirements for
the solution scope. What must Tracy do before she can begin managing the
requirements? Choose the best answer.
A. Tracy must decompose the requirements in WBS.
B. Tracy must create cost-benefits analysis of each requirement to manage the
benefits first.
C. Tracy must identify roles, responsibilities, and owners of the requirements
to fully manage the requirements.
D. Tracy must communicate the requirements to the stakeholders for their consent
and approval.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Requirements must be communicated before they are managed. Tracy must
communicate the requirements to
the stakeholders for their consent and approval before managing the
requirements.
Answer: A is incorrect. Before Tracy decomposes the requirements, she should
have the approval of the stakeholders.
Answer: B is incorrect. To begin managing the requirements, Tracy needs the
approval and consent of the stakeholders.
Answer: C is incorrect. This isn't a valid statement, as the best thing to do is
to gain the approval of the stakeholders first. Certkingdom
Review, Certkingdom
IIBA CCBA PDF Best IIBA
CCBACertification, IIBA
CCBA Training at certkingdom.com
Introduction The ServiceNow Certified Implementation Specialist – Risk and Compliance
Exam Specification defines the purpose, audience, testing options, exam content
coverage, test framework, and prerequisites to become Certified Implementation
Specialist – Risk and Compliance certified.
Exam Purpose The Certified Implementation Specialist – Risk and Compliance exam certifies
that a successful candidate has the skills and essential knowledge to contribute
to the configuration, implementation, and maintenance of ServiceNow Risk, Policy
and Compliance, and Audit Management applications.
Exam Audience The Certified Implementation Specialist – Risk and Compliance exam is
available to ServiceNow customers, partners, employees, and others interested in
becoming a ServiceNow Risk and Compliance
Implementer.
Exam Preparation Exam questions are based on official ServiceNow training materials, the
ServiceNow documentation site, and the ServiceNow developer site. Study
materials posted elsewhere online are not official and should not be used to
prepare for the examination.
Prerequisite ServiceNow Training Path ServiceNow requires the completion of the following prerequisite training
course(s) in preparation for the Certified Implementation Specialist – Risk and
Compliance exam. Information provided in the following ServiceNow training
course(s) contain source material for the exam.
• GRC Fundamentals
• Audit Management Implementation
• Risk and Compliance Implementation -
*Upon completion, the candidate will be issued a voucher code to register for
the Certified Implementation Specialist – Risk and Compliance exam.
Recommended Knowledge & Education ServiceNow recommends completion of the following Training Course(s) and
Certification(s) in preparation for the exam.
• ServiceNow Fundamentals (ILT)
• ServiceNow Implementation Methodology (SIM) Fundamentals (eLearning)
• ServiceNow Platform Implementation (ILT)
• CIS-Risk and Compliance Exam Prep
Performance Analytics Essentials • Service Portal Fundamentals
Additional Recommended Experience
• Six (6) months field experience participating in ServiceNow deployment
projects or maintaining ServiceNow instances
• Participation in at least two ServiceNow deployment projects
• General familiarity with industry terminology, acronyms, and initialisms
Exam Scope Exam content is divided into Learning Domains that correspond to key topics
and activities typically encountered during ServiceNow implementations. In each
Learning Domain, specific learning objectives have been identified and are
tested in the exam.
Implementation Planning • Use Cases
• Implementation Team
• Implementation Checklist
• Personas, Groups, and Roles
Policy and Compliance Implementation Approach • Policy and Compliance Record Lifecycles
• Policy and Compliance Architecture
• Policy Management Lifecycle
Exam Registration Each candidate must register for the exam via the ServiceNow Webassessor
website using a voucher obtained by completing the Risk and Compliance
Implementation training prerequisite. The voucher code obtained from the
prerequisite training path is nontransferable and provides the candidate
eligibility to sit for the Certified Implementation Specialist – Risk and
Compliance exam only.
During the registration process, each test taker has the option of taking the
exam at an Authorized Testing Center or as an online-proctored exam. In both
testing venues, the Certified Implementation Specialist exam is done through a
consistent, friendly, user interface customized for ServiceNow tests.
The Kryterion testing network is worldwide and all locations offer a secure,
comfortable testing environment. Candidates register for the exam at a specific
date and time so there is no waiting and a seat is reserved in the testing
center.
Each candidate can also choose to take the exam as an online-proctored exam.
This testing environment allows a candidate to take the test on his or her own
system provided that certain requirements are met.
NOTE: A special accommodation version of the exam is available. Contact
certification@servicenow.com for more information. Depending on the
accommodation, there may be a 30-day lead time before testing.
Exam Structure The exam consists of approximately (45) questions. For each question on the
examination, there are multiple possible responses. The person taking the exam
reviews the response options and selects the most correct answer to the
question.
Multiple Choice (single answer)
For each multiple-choice question on the exam, there are at least four possible
responses. The candidate taking the exam reviews the response options and
selects the one response most accurately answers the question.
Multiple Select (select all that apply)
For each multiple-select question on the exam, there are at least four possible
responses. The question will state how many responses should be selected. The
candidate taking the exam reviews the response options and selects ALL responses
that accurately answer the question. Multiple-select questions have two or more
correct responses.
Exam Results
After completing and submitting the exam, a pass or fail result is immediately
calculated and displayed to the candidate. More detailed results are not
provided to the candidate.
Exam Retakes
If a candidate fails to pass an exam, they may register to take the exam again
up to three more times for a cost of $150.
Sample Item #1:
Which of the following are scoped applications in GRC? (Select all that apply)
A. GRC Profiles
B. Risk
C. Compliance and Audit Management
D. Global
Answer: A & B
Sample Item #2:
Who should be on the core implementation team for a GRC implementation? (Select
all that apply)
A. Platform experts
B. Internal audit
C. External audit
D. Risk Assessor
Answer: A & B
Sample Item #3:
The Entity Filter record requires which mandatory field to be completed?
A. Filter date
B. Filter name
C. Conditions
D. Table
Answer: D
Sample Item #4:
Which of the following are tables in the Policy and Compliance scope? (Select
all that apply)
A. Issue
B. Control
C. Risk
D. Citation
Answer: B & D
Sample Item #5:
Which of the following are tables in the Risk scope? (Select all that apply)
A. Issue
B. Risk Framework
C. Risk Statement
D. Citation
Answer: B & C
Sample Item #6:
Which plugin is required for continuous monitoring? (Select all that apply)
A. Configuration Compliance
B. Vulnerability Response
C. UCF Integration
D. Performance Analytics GRC
Answer: A & B
Sample Item #7:
Which roles are installed with Audit Management? (Select all that apply)
A. Audit Admin
B. GRC User
C. GRC Reviewer
D. External Auditor
Course Description The IT Infrastructure Library (ITIL) is the most widely accepted approach to
IT service management in the world. ITIL is a best practice framework that has
been drawn from both the public and private sectors internationally. It
describes how IT resources should be organized to deliver business value,
documenting the processes, functions and roles of IT Service Management (ITSM).
The focus of a business should move from simply managing the company’s IT to
making IT truly productive by helping the business achieve its strategic goals.
ITIL certification helps organizations fulfill this goal by providing guidelines
for establishing governance standards and enhancing the alignment between
business and its IT processes.
Audience: ITIL certification is most suited for IT Managers, System Analysts,
Quality Analysts, System Administrators, Operations Managers, and Database
Administrators.
Course Objectives Understand and implement IT Service Management best practices, key concepts,
principles, and process models required for clearing the ITIL Foundation
certification exam
Gain understanding of scope, purpose, and objective of, service strategy,
service transition, service design, service operations, and Continual Service
Improvement
Apply ITIL concepts, tools and techniques to improve effectiveness and
efficiency of business for optimizing customer experience
Learn to automate standard tasks and apply lean principles to enhance efficiency
of IT Service Management processes in this ITIL 2011 foundation training
Centralize processes and teams and save costs using well defined fit-for-use and
fit-for purpose processes
ITIL Foundation course provides participants a complete structure with a set of
procedures to help them take a proactive approach in improving business
performance with the help of IT.
ITIL Foundation Definition: ITIL Foundation is a certification based on ITIL practices for IT Service
Management. The Foundation certification aims to give professionals an
understanding of the guidelines and framework.
Context: Overview ITIL Foundation is designed to give professionals a basic understanding of
the ITIL framework. It focuses on awareness and comprehension rather than being
able to apply ITIL principles. The basics of IT Service Management as a practice
are covered as is the ITIL lifecycle.
Topics Some of the topics covered in ITIL Foundation include:
IT Service Management as a practice
ITIL Service Cycle
Technology and architecture
Competence and training
The certification also covers processes, models, functions, and roles. The
learning objectives focus on knowing and understanding key terms and
definitions.
To become certified for ITIL Foundation, a professional needs to sit the ITIL
Foundation exam which consists of 40 multiple choice questions. A certificate is
awarded when the professional correctly answers 65% of the questions. The exam
can be done as a conclusion to classroom training or it can be prepared for
through self-study.
Related Certifications: There are many ways to further extend your contextual knowledge of IT
Service Management to broaden your understanding. One of these ways is to build
on your ITIL knowledge with a VeriSM™ certification. The VeriSM™ Plus module
offers professionals knowledge of new and emerging technologies. This
certification ensures that professionals have a grasp of the progessive
practices and innovative technologies that are now emerging rapidly as a
consequence of digital transformation.
QUESTION 1
Which ITIL guiding principle recommends using existing services, processes and
tools when improving services?
A. Progress iteratively with feedback
B. Keep is simple and practical
C. Start where you are
D. Focus on value
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 Which practice has a purpose that includes ensuring that risks have been
properly assessed?
A. Service configuration management
B. Problem management
C. Service level management
D. Change control
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 When should a full risk assessment and authorization be carried out for a
standard change?
A. Each time the standard change is implemented
B. When the procedure for the standard change is created
C. At least once a year
D. When an emergency change is requested
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 Which statement about emergency changes is CORRECT?
A. The testing of emergency can be eliminated in order to implement the change
quickly
B. The assessment and authorization of emergency changes is expedited to ensure
they can be implemented quickly
C. Emergency changes should be authorized and implemented as service requests
D. Emergency changes must be fully documented before authorization and
implementation
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 Which practice coordinates the classification, ownership and communication
of service requests and incidents?
A. Supplier management
B. Service desk
C. Problem management
D. Relationship management
