PL-900 Microsoft Power Platform Fundamentals Exam

 

The content of this exam was updated on March 10, 2021. Please download the skills measured document below to see what changed.

Candidates for this exam aspire to improve productivity by understanding the capabilities of the Power Platform, automating basic business processes with Power Automate, performing basic data analysis with Power BI, acting more effectively by creating simple Power Apps experiences, and creating powerful chatbots by using Power Virtual Agents.

You may be eligible for ACE college credit if you pass this certification exam. See ACE college credit for certification exams for details.
Part of the requirements for: Microsoft Certified: Power Platform Fundamentals
Related exams: none
Important: See details

Skills measured
The content of this exam was updated on March 10, 2021. Please download the exam skills outline below to see what changed.
Describe the business value of Power Platform (15-20%)
Identify the core components of Power Platform (15-20%)
Demonstrate the capabilities of Power BI (15-20%)
Describe the capabilities of Power Apps (15-20%)
Demonstrate the capabilities of Power Automate (15-20%)
Demonstrate the business value of Power Virtual Agents (10-15%)


The exam guide below shows the changes that were implemented on March 10, 2021.

Audience Profile
Candidates for this exam aspire to improve productivity by understanding the capabilities of the Power Platform, automating basic business processes with Power Automate, performing basic data analysis with Power BI, acting more effectively by creating simple Power Apps experiences and creating powerful chatbots by using Power Virtual Agents.

Skills Measured
NOTE: The bullets that appear below each of the skills measured are intended to illustrate how we are assessing that skill. This list is NOT definitive or exhaustive.
NOTE: Most questions cover features that are General Availability (GA). The exam may contain questions on Preview features if those features are commonly used.

Describe the business value of Power Platform (15-20%)
Describe the business value of Power Platform services
 analyze data by using Power BI
 act with Power Apps
 build solutions that use Common Data ServiceMicrosoft Dataverse
 create flows by using Power Automate
 use connectors to access services and data
 create powerful chatbots by using a guided, no-code graphical interface

Describe the business value of extending business solutions by using Power Platform
 describe how Dynamics 365 apps can accelerate delivery of Power Platform business solutions
 describe how Power Platform business solutions can be used by Microsoft 365 apps including Microsoft Teams
 describe how Power Platform business solutions can consume Microsoft 365 services
 describe how Power Platform business solutions can consume Microsoft Azure services including Azure Cognitive Services
 describe how Power Platform business solutions can consume third-party apps and services

Describe Power Platform administration and security
 describe how Power Platform implements security including awareness of Common Data
ServiceMicrosoft Dataverse security roles, Azure Identity Services, and Access
Management (IAM)
 describe how to manage apps and users
 describe environments
 describe where to perform specific administrative tasks including Power Platform Admin center, Microsoft 365 admin center
 describe Data Loss Prevention (DLP) policies
 describe how the platform supports privacy and accessibility guidelines

Identify the Core Components of Power Platform (15-20%)
Describe Common Data ServiceMicrosoft Dataverse
 describe the Power Apps user experience
 describe entitiestables, fieldscolumns, and relationships
 describe use cases for solutions
 describe use cases and limitations of business rules
 describe the Common Data Model (CDM)
 describe how to use common standard entities tables to describe people, places, and things

Describe Connectors
 describe the native Dataverse connection experience
 describe triggers including trigger types and where triggers are used
 describe actions
 describe licensing options for connectors including standard or premium tier Identify use cases for custom connectors

Describe AI Builder
 identify the business value of AI Builder
 describe models including business card reader, detection model, form processing model, and prediction model
 describe how the Power Apps and Power Automate can consume AI Builder data

Demonstrate the capabilities of Power BI (15-20%)
Identify common Power BI components
 identify and describe uses for visualization controls including pie, bar, donut, and scatter plots and KPIs
 describe types of filters
 describe the Power BI Desktop Reports, Data, and Model tabs
 describe uses for custom visuals including charts or controls
Compare and contrast dashboards and workspaces
 compare and contrast Power BI Desktop and Power BI Service
 compare and contrast dashboards, workspaces, and reports

Connect to and consume data
 combine multiple data sources
 clean and transform data
 describe and implement aggregate functions
 identify available types of data sources including Microsoft Excel
 describe use cases for shared datasets and template apps and how to consume each

Build a basic dashboard using Power BI
 design a Power BI dashboard
 design data layout and mapping
 publish and share reports and dashboards

Demonstrate the capabilities of Power Apps (15-20%)
Identify common Power Apps components
 describe differences between canvas apps and model-driven apps
 describe portal apps
 identify and describe types of reusable components including canvas component libraries and Power Apps Component Framework (PCF) components
 describe use cases for formulas

Build a basic canvas app
 describe types of data sources
 connect to data by using connectors
 combine multiple data sources
 use controls to design the user experience
 describe the customer journey
 publish and share an app

Describe Power Apps portals
 create a portal by using a template
 describe common portal customizations
 identify differences in portal behavior based on whether a user is authenticated
 apply a theme to a portal

Build a basic model-driven app
 add entities tables to app navigation
 modify forms and views
 publish and share an app

Demonstrate the capabilities of Power Automate (15-20%)
Identify common Power Automate components
 identify flow types
 describe use cases for flows and available flow templates
 describe how Power Automate uses connectors
 describe loops and conditions including switch, do until, and apply to each
 describe expressions
 describe approvals

Build a basic flow
 create a flow by using the button, automated, or scheduled flow template
 modify a flow
 use flow controls to perform data operations
 run a flow
 modify a flow

Demonstrate the capabilities of Power Virtual Agents (10-15%)
Describe Power Virtual Agents capabilities
 describe use cases for Power Virtual Agents
 describe where you can publish chatbots
 describe topics, entities and actions
 describe message nodes, question nodes, conditions, trigger phrases, and the authoring canvas
 identify common pre-built entities

Build and publish a basic chatbot
 create a chatbot
 create a topic
 call an action
 test a chatbot
 publish a chatbot
 monitor chatbot usage
 monitor chatbot performance

QUESTION 1
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
You have a Power Apps app. You create a new version of the app and then publish the new version.
A customer goes through the process of restoring the previous version of the app. In the Version tab for the app, you will see two versions of the app.
Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed.” If the statement is
incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.

A. No change is needed.
B. one
C. three
D. four

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A company uses Dynamics 365 Sales. The company uses a browser-based app named Sales Hub.
You need to ensure that users can access data from mobile devices.
Which app should users install?

A. Dynamics 365 Remote Assist
B. Dynamics 365 Finance
C. Dynamics 365 Business Central
D. Dynamics 365 for Phones

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
You are a customer service manager.
You need to implement a Power Apps portal that allows customers to submit cases.
Which type of data source is used?

A. Dynamics 365 Connector
B. Microsoft SharePoint
C. Microsoft Azure Storage
D. Common Data Service

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A distribution company has multiple warehouses.
Tax rates charged on sales orders need to be calculated based on locality and region.
You need to recommend a cost-effective solution that can be implemented quickly.
What should you recommend?

A. Check AppSource for a tax add-on.
B. Create alerts in Dynamics 365 Finance for tax table changes.
C. Implement the Common Data Model.
D. Run a Power BI report.
E. Write scripts and code tax updates.

Correct Answer: B

Examkingdom Microsoft PL-900 Exam pdf, Certkingdom Microsoft PL-900 PDF

Best Microsoft PL-900 Certification, Microsoft PL-900 Training at certkingdom.com

MB-210 Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Sales Exam updated on July 23, 2021

 

The content of this exam was updated on July 23, 2021. Please download the skills measured document below to see what changed.

Languages: English, Japanese
Retirement date: none
This exam measures your ability to accomplish the following technical tasks: Perform configuration, Manage core sales tables, Configure additional tools and services.

Skills measured
The content of this exam was updated on July 23, 2021. Please download the exam skills outline below to see what changed.
Perform configuration (25-30%)
Manage core sales tables (45-50%)
Configure additional tools and services (20-25%)

This exam was updated on July 23, 2021. Following the current exam guide, we have included a version of the exam guide with Track Changes set to “On,” showing the changes that were made to the exam on that date.

The following exam guide shows the changes that were implemented on July 23, 2021.

Audience Profile
Candidates for this exam are Microsoft Dynamics 365 functional consultants with sales expertise.

Candidates responsible for implementing solutions that support a sales life cycle so that it can run efficiently and effectively to meet revenue targets, business strategies, and company objectives.

Candidates are responsible for configuring and expanding the core functionality of leads, contacts, accounts, opportunities, and supporting entities to map to the sales processes in place at the organization. They identify opportunities to use Power Apps to develop unified experiences for all devices, Power Automate for application integration, business process flows, and other automation tools to construct an application that supports and accelerates the “lead to cash” journey.

Candidates must have strong business knowledge and should have first-person experience in one or more sales roles.

Skills Measured
NOTE: The bullets that follow each of the skills measured are intended to illustrate how we are assessing that skill. This list is NOT definitive or exhaustive.
NOTE: Most questions cover features that are general availability (GA). The exam may contain questions on Preview features if those features are commonly used.

Perform configuration (25-30%)

Configure sales settings

 configure sales territories and hierarchical sales territories
 configure auto number settings for cases, orders, and quotes
 configure business settings including business closures, currencies, and fiscal years
 configure sales security roles and access team templates
 configure goal management components
 create and manage sales collateral

Configure processes
 configure duplicate detection rules
 configure record creation rules
 configure sales business process flows
 create and manage playbooks

Create and configure sales visualizations

 configure template apps for Power BI
 configure sales dashboards
 design and create sales charts
 design sales Advanced Find, Power BI, FetchXML, and Kanban reports, views, and visualizationsreports

Manage core sales entities tables (45-50%)
Create and manage accounts and contacts
 create and manage accounts
 create and manage contacts
 create and manage activities

Create and manage leads
 create and search for leads
 convert activities to leads
 perform lead qualification
 configure status reasons

Create and manage opportunities
 manage opportunities
 track stakeholders stakeholders, sales team members, and competitors
 add product line items to opportunities
 customize the Opportunity Close form
 configure status reasons

Create and manage quotessales order processes
 add quotes to opportunities
 edit quotes in various stages
 manage revisions to quotes
 send quotes to customers
 convert quotes to orders
 manage orders
 manage invoices

Create and manage sales order processing
 manage orders
 manage invoices
 manage competitors

Create and manage products and product catalogs
 create and manage products, product bundles, and product families
 create and manage price pricing lists
 create and manage discount lists
 create and manage unit groups
 create and manage product lifecycles

Configure additional tools and services (20-25%)
Configure integration with external sales applications
 implement Dynamics 365 Sales Insights
 implement Relationship Sales
 describe use cases for Customer Insights
 describe use cases for Power Virtual Agents
 describe use cases for AI Builder
 implement Power BI template apps

Mange forecastingCreate and manage goals and forecasts
 configure and use forecasts
 configure and use goals
 define properties and scheduling
 select a template

Create and configure playbooks
 define playbook categories

Manage playbook templatesImplement Sales Insights
 configure standard Sales Insights features
 configure premium features including Notes Analysis, Who Knows Whom, and
Conversation Intelligence
 implement Sales Accelerator
 implement premium forecasting
 configure predictive scoring models

QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in
the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have
more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these
questions will not appear in the review screen.
You are a Dynamics 365 for Sales system customizer.
You need to set up LinkedIn Sales Navigator Lead (member profile) on the Lead form.
Solution: Use Dynamics 365 AI for Sales.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
A company uses Dynamics 365 for Sales. The company has not made changes to any of the default security roles.
You need to ensure that users can assign salespeople to sales territories.
Which security role can you use?

A. Delegate
B. Sales Person
C. Sales Manager
D. System Customizer

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
You create an invoice with products and services for a customer.
You need to add pricing for a product that is not available in the product catalog.
What should you do?

A. Add the product to the order and use Get Products
B. Add a write-in product
C. Add an existing product and change the name and price
D. Add the product to the quote and use Get Products

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You need to determine which fields are required when opportunities are marked as lost.
Which fields are required?

A. Status and Stakeholders
B. Status and Contact
C. Status Reason and Competitor
D. Status Reason and Description

Correct Answer: C

Examkingdom Microsoft MB-210 Exam PDF, Certkingdom Microsoft MB-210 Exam PDF

Best Microsoft MB-210 Certification, Microsoft MB-210 Training at certkingdom.com

1z0-996-21 Oracle Utilities Customer Cloud Service 2021 Implementation Essentials Exam

 

Earn associated certifications
Passing this exam is required to earn these certifications. Select each certification title below to view full requirements.

Oracle Utilities Customer Cloud Service 2021 Certified Implementation Specialist
Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 90 Minutes
Exam Price: Rs.40,575
Number of Questions: 60
Passing Score: 68%
Validation: Exam has been validated against Oracle Utilities Customer Cloud Service 21A
Policy: Cloud Recertification

Take recommended training
Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional):

In the subscription: Oracle Utilities Learning Subscription
Additional Preparation and Information
A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs and/or field experience) provides the best preparation for passing the exam.

Review exam topics
Customer Information
Maintain and Manage Customer Information

Financial Transactions
Manage Financial Transactions

Billing
Maintain Bill Segments
Complete Bills

Rates
Manage and Apply Rates
Apply Proration
Apply Bill Factors

Payments
Manage Payments
Manage Overpayment and Payment Distribution

Adjustments
Configure and Manage Adjustments

Monitor Overdue Debt
Configure and Manage Credit & Collections and Overdue Processes
Manage Payment Arrangements and Pay Plans

Devices & Measuring Components
Explain the concept of a measuring component and the strcutures that represent them
Explain the relationship between devices and measureing components
Explain the different types of measuring components
Configure a device type
Configure a new measuring component type
Configure a new device config type and associate a measuring component to a device

Service Points & Install Events
Explain the concept of an install event and the relationship between devices and service points

Measurements
Explain the differences between initial measurements, final measurements, and usage
Explain the high level process of loading measurements through to calculating usage
Explain the derived values and how they are associated with the final measurements
Configure a new derive value algorithm
Explain three types of IMDs and the differences between them
Explain the IMD exception statuses and the Automatic Retry functionality

VEE
Explain the difference between critical validations and validation rules, including when critical validations are executed and when validation rules are executed.
Explain the VEE process, including the data prepration steps that are executed immediately prior to entering VEE processing,w hat data is prassed into the VEE engine and what happens during VEE execution for a given IMD
Configure new VEE groups that contain base packate VEE rules and apply a VEE group to a device or device type
Configure eligibility criteria and criteria field value retrieval algorithms to determine if a rule should be applied.
Expalin the categories of IMD exceptions (generated by VEE rules)

Usage Subscriptions
Explain the concept of usage subscriptions
Explain the possible relationships between measuring components, service points and usage subscriptions
Design and set up the admin data required to effectively configure a usage subscription

Usage
Explain the usage calculation process
Explain the relationships between usage transactions and usage subscriptions
Use the Get Scalar Details usage rule to retrieve scalar measurements for scalar internal measuring components

Fieldwork and Service Order Management
Explain the concept of a Service Order ("Orchrestrator") Activity
Explain the concept of Service Order Children Activities

Operational Device Management
Explain the role of assets and components
Explain the specifications and their relationship to assets

QUESTION 1
Your client has three requirements:
1. Apply validation on meter reads coming from the Data Collectors.
2. If a meter read does not pass the validation, an error will be generated and assigned to a user.
3. Retry the validation every 30 minutes for the errors in case the issue is related to configuration.
Which statement describes the base functions you should use?

A. If a To Do entry is created on the VEE exception, the user will need to discard the IMD and a new IMD will be loaded after 30 minutes.
B. If a To Do entry is created on the VEE exception, the IMD’s Next Retry Date/Time is set to 30 minutes, and then processed by the algorithm D1-COMP-TD (Complete To Do Entries).
C. If a To Do entry is created on the VEE exception, the IMD’s Next Retry Date/Time is set to 30 minutes, and then processed by the algorithm D1-CRE-IMDTD (Create To Do).
D. If a To Do entry is created on the VEE exception, the user will need to discard the IMD and a new IMD will be manually loaded.
E. If a To Do entry is created on the VEE exception, the IMD’s Next Retry Date/Time is set to 30 minutes, and then processed by the algorithm D1-IMD-RETRY (Retry Initial Measurement Data Processing).

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
When creating a new business object for a service point (SP), what items are required to be able to view and update the new elements associated with the SP?

A. Schema, Validation Algorithm, and Maintenance UI Map
B. Maintenance Object, Application Service, and Schema
C. Display UI Map, Display Map Service Script, and Maintenance UI Map
D. Validation Algorithm, Post Processing Algorithm, and Lifecycle

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
As part of the service order processing, the algorithm D1-CNSPINSDV (Connect SP and/or Install Device)
determines if a specific activity needs to be created based on the state of the service point.
Based on the status of the service point, what can this algorithm create?

A. Device Configuration
B. Device
C. Service Point
D. Smart Meter Command

Actualkey Oracle 1z0-996-21 Exam pdf, Certkingdom Oracle 1z0-996-21 PDF

Best Oracle 1z0-996-21 Certification, Oracle 1z0-996-21 Training at certkingdom.com

VMware 5V0-32.21 VMware Cloud Provider Specialist Exam

 

PRODUCT :VMware Cloud Director, Cloud Provider Platform, Cloud Provider Pod, Cloud Provider Hub, VMware Cloud Foundation
EXAM LANGUAGE : English
Associated Certification : VMware Specialist - Cloud Provider 2021
Duration : 110 Minutes
Number of Questions : 53
Passing Score : 300 Learn More
Format :  Single and Multiple Choice, Proctored

EXAM OVERVIEW
This exam tests expertise in deploying and managing VMware Cloud Director and demonstrates knowledge of the overall Cloud Provider Platform.

PREPARE FOR THE EXAM

Exam Delivery
This is aproctored exam delivered through Pearson VUE. For more information, visit the Pearson VUE website

Badge Information
For details and a complete list of requirements and recommendations for attainment, please reference theVMware Education Services

Certification website

Minimally Qualified Candidate
The minimally qualified candidate should have one or more years of experience with VMware Cloud Director and the service platforms; more than a year of hands-on experience with VMware Cloud Provider Platform; and a year or more experience in storage and networking. It is strongly recommended thatthis person also have successfully completed the VCD Fundamentals training and have a current VCP in CMA, DCV, DTM or NV.The successful candidate will likely hold additional industry-recognized IT certifications or accreditations. The MQC should have all the knowledge contained in the exam sections listed below.

Exam Sections
The exam sections and objectives outline the range of content that can be included in the exam. Some objectives may not have associated questions.

Section 1 –VMware vCloud Director Architecture
Objective 1.1 –Identify the function of VMware Cloud Director cell architecture and services.
Objective 1.2 –Identify the function of VMware Cloud Director resource abstractions.
Objective 1.3 –Identify the function of VMware Cloud Director networking concepts.
Objective 1.4 –Identify the function of VMware Cloud Director storage concepts.

Section 2 –VMware Products and Solutions
Objective 2.1 –Identify the components of the Cloud Provider Platform.
Objective 2.2 –Identify the functionality of VMware vCloud Usage Meter.
Objective 2.3 –Identify the functionality of VMware vCloud Usage Insight and VMware Commerce Portal.
Objective 2.4 –Identify use cases of Cloud Foundation.
Objective 2.5 –Identify use cases of Container Service Extension.
Objective 2.6 –Identify use cases of App Launch Pad.
Objective 2.7 –Identify use cases of Object Storage Service.
Objective 2.8 –Identify use cases of vRealize Orchestrator.
Objective 2.9 –Identify components of Cloud Director Availability.
Objective 2.10 –Identify use cases of Cloud Director Availability.
Objective 2.11–Identify components of vRealize Operations Tenant App for Cloud Director.
Objective 2.12–Identify use cases for vRealize Operations Tenant App for Cloud Director.

Section 3 –Planning and Designing –No testable objectives for this section

Section 4 –Configure and install VMware vCloud Director
Objective 4.1 –Given an installation scenario, identify hardware and software requirements.
Objective 4.2 –Identify the steps to install and configure VMware Cloud Director.
Objective 4.3 –Given a scenario, identify the appropriate configuration of VMware Cloud Director networking.
Objective 4.4 –Given a scenario, identify the appropriate configuration of VMware vSphere resources.
Objective 4.5 –Given a scenario, identify the appropriate configuration of VMware Storage.
Objective 4.6 –Given a scenario, identify the appropriate configuration of VMware Cloud Director resource abstractions.
Objective 4.7 –Identify the steps to configure and enable identity provider functionality.
Objective 4.8 –Create and manage SSL certificates
Objective 4.9 –Identify the load balancing requirements for VMware Cloud Director.
Objective 4.10 –Identify the steps to configure Central Point of Management (CPoM).
Objective 4.11 –Identify the requirements to configure VMware vCloud Usage Meter.

Section5–Performance-tuning, Optimization, and Upgrades

Objective 5.1 –Given an installation scenario, identify hardware and software requirements.

Section 6 –Troubleshooting and Repairin6
Objective 5.1 Identify locations for VMware Cloud Director logs.

Section 7 –Administration and Operations of VMware vCloud Director
Objective 7.1 -Identify the steps to add resources to VMware Cloud Director.
Objective 7.2 –Identify how to manage cloud resources using VMware Cloud Director.
Objective 7.3 –Identify how to manage organizations in VMware Cloud Director.
Objective 7.4 –Identify the Organization Virtual Data Center (oVDC) allocation models in VMware Cloud Director.
Objective 7.5 –Identify how to manage catalogs using VMware Cloud Director user interface.
Objective 7.6 –Identify default and custom VMware Cloud Director user roles and groups.
Objective 7.7 –Identify the steps to configure and manage vApps.
Objective 7.8 –Identify the steps to configure and manage Virtual Machines (VMs).
Objective 7.9 –Identify how to configure and apply VMware Cloud Director Availability Policies and SLA Profiles.
Objective 7.10 –Identify the available tenant networking objects in VMware Cloud Director.Objective
Objective 7.11 –Identify the functionality of Data Center Groups.
Objective 7.12 Identify how to configure VMware Cloud Director for multi-site management.

Recommended Courses
VMware vCloud Director: Install, Configure, Manage

QUESTION 1
An administrator is configuring and managing multisite deployments.
Which Association Member Status is an invalid status?

A. Inactive
B. Asymmetric
C. Active
D. Unreachable

Correct Answer: A

Reference:
https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Cloud-Director/10.3/vcd_103_spportal.pdf (59)

QUESTION 2
The VMware Cloud Director administrator wants to make sure that the system is able to collect log bundles from all cells at once.
How should the administrator accomplish this goal?

A. Install vRealize Log Insight agent on each cell to redirect logs to a centralized location.
B. Configure a syslog server on each of the cells, and request the logs from the syslog server.
C. Map the log location on the primary cell to a shared folder on each of the other cells in the server group, ensuring they all have read/write rights on the primary.
D. Make sure the NFS server allows read-write access to the shared location by the root system account on each cell.

Correct Answer: D

Reference:
https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Cloud-Director/10.2/vcd_102_install.pdf (24)

QUESTION 3
Which three steps are required to enable east/west firewall in VMware Cloud Director Tenant Portal? (Choose three.)

A. Click on Data Center Group and create a new Data Center Group
B. Go to Edge Gateways and enable firewall on one of the Edge Gateways
C. Go to Networking and enable Distributed Firewall for one of the Network inside the Network section
D. Activate Distributed Firewall inside the Data Center Group
E. Login to Customer Organization and go to Networking Section of Tenant Portal
F. Enable the firewall in NSX-T

Correct Answer: ACD

Actualkey VMware 5V0-32.21 Exam pdf, Certkingdom VMware 5V0-32.21 PDF

Best VMware 5V0-32.21 Certification, VMware 5V0-32.21 Training at certkingdom.com

Oracle 1z0-1046-21 Oracle Global Human Resources Cloud 2021 Implementation Essentials Exam

 

Earn associated certifications
Passing this exam is required to earn these certifications. Select each certification title below to view full requirements.
Oracle Global Human Resources Cloud 2021 Certified Implementation Specialist

Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 90 Minutes
Exam Price: Rs.40,575
Number of Questions: 58
Passing Score: 70%
Validation: This exam has been validated against 21B.
Policy: Cloud Recertification

Take recommended training
Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional):

In the subscription: Oracle Global Human Resources Cloud Learning Subscription
Additional Preparation and Information

A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs and/or field experience) provides the best preparation for passing the exam.

People Management
Explain Person and Employment Model
Manage the workforce lifecycle
Maintain worker directories
Maintain workforce information
Configure Directory Person Keyword Searches
Using the HCM Design Studio

Workforce Structures
Create organizations and divisions
Use effective dating and actions
Set Up Enterprise HCM Information
Create Legal Entities for HCM
Define Workforce Structures
Define Grades
Define Jobs
Define Positions
Define Geographies
Define Enterprise Structure

Checklists, Schedules, and Trees
Create Checklists
(New) Configure Journeys
Define Schedules
Configure Profile Options and Lookups
Define Calendar Events and Geography Trees
Configure Trees

Workflow, Approvals, and Notifications
Explain Approval Policies
Manage Approval Rules and Approver Types
Deploy Notifications
Manage Approval Transactions
(New) Use Alert Composer

QUESTION 1
A human resource specialist is promoting an employee. While promoting an employee, the human resource
specialist is required to enter the promotion date, promotion action, and promotion reason. However, the
promotion reason list of values does not list an appropriate reason.
Which two options can help the human resource specialist understand the Action framework available in the application? (Choose two.)

A. Action Reasons are seeded and can be defined by a user.
B. Action Types are seeded and cannot be defined by a user.
C. Actions are seeded and cannot be defined by a user.
D. Action Reasons are seeded and cannot be defined by a user.

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
Which Approval Types are supported while configuring the Managing Approval Rules: Promote transaction?

A. Data Role, Application Role, Approval Groups, Management Hierarchy, Position Hierarchy, Self Auto Approve, User
B. Application Role, Approval Groups, Management Hierarchy, Position Hierarchy, Representative, Self Auto Approve, User
C. Application Role, Approval Groups, Management Hierarchy, Parent Position, Representative, User, Self Auto Approve
D. Enterprise Role, Application Role, Approval Groups, Parent Position, Representative, User, Self Auto Approve

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Availability (work time) can be defined in HCM Cloud in different ways.
In what order does the application search for an employee’s schedule, before applying it to an assignment?

A. Standard working hours, Primary work schedule, Employment work week, Published schedules
B. Published schedules, Employment work week, Primary work schedule, Standard working hours
C. Published schedules, Primary work schedule, Employment work week, Standard working hours
D. Employment work week, Published schedules, Primary work schedule, Standard working hours

Correct Answer: B

Actualkey Oracle 1z0-1046-21 Exam pdf, Certkingdom Oracle 1z0-1046-21 PDF

Best Oracle 1z0-1046-21 Certification, Oracle 1z0-1046-21 Training at certkingdom.com

MS-100 Microsoft 365 Identity and Services Exam, August 5, 2021 updated version

This exam was updated on August 5, 2021. Following the current exam guide, we have included a version of the exam guide with Track Changes set to “On,” showing the changes that were made to the exam on that date.

Audience Profile
Candidates for this exam are Microsoft 365 Enterprise Administrators who take part in evaluating, planning, migrating, deploying, and managing Microsoft 365 services. They perform Microsoft 365 tenant management tasks for an enterprise, including its identities, security, compliance, Power Platform, and supporting technologies.

Candidates have a working knowledge of Microsoft 365 workloads and should have been an administrator for at least one
one Microsoft 365 workload (Exchange, SharePoint, Teams), and Windows as a ServiceExchange, SharePoint, Teams, or Windows 10 deployment.
Candidates also have a working knowledge of networking, server administration, and IT fundamentals such as DNS, Active Directory, and PowerShell.

Skills Measured
NOTE: The bullets that follow each of the skills measured are intended to illustrate how we are assessing that skill. This list is NOT definitive or exhaustive.
NOTE: Most questions cover features that are General Availability (GA). The exam may contain questions on Preview features if those features are commonly used.

Design and Implement Microsoft 365 Services (25-30%)
Plan architecture
 plan integration of Microsoft 365 and on-premises environments
 identify deployment workloads team
 plan an identity and authentication solution
 plan enterprise application modernization

Deploy a Microsoft 365 tenant
 manage domains
 configure organizational settings
 complete the organizational profile
 add a Microsoft partner or work with Microsoft FastTrack
 complete the subscription setup wizard
 plan and create a tenant
 edit an organizational profile
 plan and create subscription(s)
 configure tenant-wide workload settings

Manage Microsoft 365 subscription and tenant health
 manage service health alerts
 create and manage service requests
 create internal service health response plan
 monitor service health
 monitor license allocations
 configure and review reports, including Power BI, Operations Management Suite (OMS),Azure Monitor logs, Log Analytics workspaces, and Microsoft 365 reporting
 schedule and review security and compliance reports
 schedule and review usage metrics

Plan migration of users and data
 identify data to be migrated and migration methods
 identify users and mailboxes to be migrated and migration methods
 plan migration of on-premises users and groups
 import PST files

Manage User Identity and Roles (25-30%)

Design identity strategy
 evaluate requirements and solutions for synchronization
 evaluate requirements and solutions for identity management
 evaluate requirements and solutions for authentication

Plan identity synchronization
 design directory synchronization
 implement directory synchronization with directory services, federation services, and

Azure endpoints by using Azure AD Connect sync
 plan for directory synchronization using Azure AD cloud sync

Manage identity synchronization with Azure Active Directory (Azure AD)
 configure and manage directory synchronization by using Azure AD cloud sync
 configure directory synchronization by using Azure AD Connect
 monitor Azure AD Connect Health
 manage Azure AD Connect synchronization
 configure object filters
 configure password synchronization
 implement multi-forest AD Connect scenarios

Manage Azure AD identities
 plan Azure AD identities
 implement and manage self-service password reset (SSPR)
 manage access reviews
 manage groups
 manage passwords
 manage product licenses
 manage users
 perform bulk user management

Manage roles
 plan user roles
 manage admin roles
 allocate roles for workloads
 manage role allocations by using Azure AD

Manage Access and Authentication (15-20%)

Manage authentication
 design an authentication method
 configure authentication
 implement an authentication method
 manage authentication
 monitor authentication

Plan and implement secure access
 design a conditional access solution
 implement entitlement packages
 implement Azure AD Identity Protection
 manage identity protection
 implement conditional access
 manage conditional access
 implement and secure access for guest and external users

Configure application access
 configure application registration in Azure AD
 configure Azure AD Application Proxy
 publish enterprise apps in Azure AD

Plan Office 365 Workloads and Applications (25-30%)

Plan for Microsoft 365 Apps deployment
 plan for Microsoft connectivity
 manage Microsoft 365 Apps
 plan for Office online
 assess readiness using Microsoft analytics
 plan Microsoft 365 App compatibility
 manage Office 365 software downloads
 plan for Microsoft apps updates
 plan Microsoft telemetry and reporting

Plan for messaging deployments
 plan migration strategy
 plan messaging deployment
 identify hybrid requirements
 plan for connectivity
 plan for mail routing
 plan email domains

Plan for Microsoft SharePoint Online and OneDrive for Business
 plan migration strategy
 plan external share settings
 identify hybrid requirements
 manage access configurations
 manage Microsoft groups
 manage SharePoint tenant and site settings

Plan for Microsoft Teams infrastructure
 plan for communication and call quality and capacity
 plan for Phone System
 plan Microsoft Teams deployment
 plan Microsoft Teams organizational settings
 plan for guest and external access
 plan for Microsoft Teams hybrid connectivity and co-existence

Plan Microsoft Power Platform integration
 implement Microsoft Power Platform Center of Excellence (CoE) starter kit
 plan for Power Platform workload deployments
 plan resource deployment
 plan for connectivity (and data flow)
 manage environments
 manage resources

Actualkey Microsoft MS-100 Exam, Certkingdom Microsoft MS-100 PDF

Best Microsoft MS-100 Certification, Microsoft MS-100 Training at certkingdom.com

QUESTION 1
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
Your company purchases a new financial application named App1.
From Cloud Discovery in Microsoft Cloud App Security, you view the Discovered apps page and discover that
many applications have a low score because they are missing information about domain registration and consumer popularity.
You need to prevent the missing information from affecting the score.
What should you configure from the Cloud Discover settings?

A. App tags
B. Score metrics
C. Organization details
D. Default behavior

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You have a Microsoft 365 tenant that contains a Microsoft Power Platform environment.
You need to ensure that only specific users can create new environments.
What should you do in the Power Platform admin center?

A. From Data policies, create a new data policy.
B. From Data integration, create a new connection set.
C. From Power Platform settings, modify the Governance settings for the environment.
D. From Environments, modify the behaviour settings for the default environment.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which migration solution should you recommend for Project1?

A. From Exchange Online PowerShell, run the New-MailboxImportRequest cmdlet.
B. From Exchange Online PowerShell, run the New-MailboxExportRequest cmdlet.
C. From Exchange admin center, start the migration and select Remote move migration.
D. From the Exchange admin center, start the migration and select Cutover migration.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Project1: During Project1, the mailboxes of 100 users in the sales department will be moved to Microsoft 365.
Fabrikam does NOT plan to implement identity federation.
ll users must be able to exchange email messages successfully during Project1 by using their current email address.
During Project1, some users will have mailboxes in Microsoft 365 and some users will have mailboxes in
Exchange on-premises. To enable users to be able to exchange email messages successfully during Project1
by using their current email address, we’ll need to configure hybrid Exchange.
To migrate mailboxes in a hybrid Exchange configuration, you use the Exchange admin center to perform

Remote move migrations.
Note:
There are several versions of this question in the exam. The question has two possible correct answers:
From Exchange admin center, start the migration and select Remote move migration.
From the Microsoft 365 admin center, start a data migration and click Exchange as the data service.
Other incorrect answer options you may see on the exam include the following:
From the Exchange admin center, start a migration and select Staged migration.
From the Microsoft 365 admin center, start a data migration and click Upload PST as the data service.
From the Microsoft 365 admin center, start a data migration and click Outlook as the data service.
From the Exchange admin center, start a migration and select Cutover migration.

QUESTION 4
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription that contains an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com.
Corporate policy states that user passwords must not include the word Contoso.
What should you do to implement the corporate policy?

A. From the Azure Active Directory admin center, configure the Password protection settings.
B. From the Microsoft 365 admin center, configure the Password policy settings.
C. From Azure AD Identity Protection, configure a sign-in risk policy.
D. From the Azure Active Directory admin center, create a conditional access policy.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Your network contains an on-premises Active Directory forest.
You are evaluating the implementation of Microsoft 365 and the deployment of an authentication strategy.
You need to recommend an authentication strategy that meets the following requirements:
Allows users to sign in by using smart card-based certificates
Allows users to connect to on-premises and Microsoft 365 services by using SSO
Which authentication strategy should you recommend?

A. password hash synchronization and seamless SSO
B. federation with Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS)
C. pass-through authentication and seamless SSO

Correct Answer: B

Updated Version SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ 2021 Exam Free Training

 

The CompTIA Security+ certification exam will verify the successful candidate has the knowledge and skills required to assess the security posture of an enterprise environment and recommend and implement appropriate security solutions; monitor and secure hybrid environments, including cloud, mobile, and IoT; operate with an awareness of applicable laws and policies, including principles of governance, risk, and compliance; identify, analyze, and respond to security events and incidents

Number of Questions Maximum of 90 questions
Type of Questions Multiple choice and performance-based
Length of Test 90 minutes
Passing Score 750 (on a scale of 100-900)
Recommended Experience CompTIA Network+ and two years of experience in IT administration with a security focus
Languages English, Japanese, Portuguese and Simplified Chinese English, Japanese
Retirement English retires: July 31, 2021
All other languages retire: Q1 2022
Usually three years after launch
Testing Provider Pearson VUE
Testing Centers : Online Testing

Official CompTIA Content (OCC) has been designed from the ground up to help you learn and master the material in your certification exam. Trust self-paced CompTIA study guides that are

Clearly written and structured.
Flexible so you can learn at any pace.
Focused on your exam success.

Save With a Bundle
CompTIA Training bundles are a great way to continue your learning process in every stage of your exam preparation. Complement a study guide with popular training options such as:

Learn online with CertMaster Learn.
Apply your knowledge with CertMaster Labs
Practice and prepare for your exam with CertMaster Practice.

Why is it different?
More choose Security+ - chosen by more corporations and defense organizations than any other certification on the market to validate baseline security skills and for fulfilling the DoD 8570 compliance.
Security+ proves hands-on skills – the only baseline cybersecurity certification emphasizing hands-on practical skills, ensuring the security professional is better prepared to problem solve a wider variety of today’s complex issues.
More job roles turn to Security+ to supplement skills – baseline cybersecurity skills are applicable across more of today’s job roles to secure systems, software and hardware.
Security+ is aligned to the latest trends and techniques – covering the most core technical skills in risk assessment and management, incident response, forensics, enterprise networks, hybrid/cloud operations, and security controls, ensuring high-performance on the job.

Two people looking at many monitors.

About the exam
CompTIA Security+ (SY0-501) English language exam will retire on July 31, 2021.

The new Security+ (SY0-601) is now available.

CompTIA Security+ is the first security certification a candidate should earn. It establishes the core knowledge required of any cybersecurity role and provides a springboard to intermediate-level cybersecurity jobs. Security+ incorporates best practices in hands-on troubleshooting, ensuring candidates have practical security problem-solving skills required to:

Assess the security posture of an enterprise environment and recommend and implement appropriate security solutions
Monitor and secure hybrid environments, including cloud, mobile, and IoT
Operate with an awareness of applicable laws and policies, including principles of governance, risk, and compliance
Identify, analyze, and respond to security events and incidents

Security+ is compliant with ISO 17024 standards and approved by the US DoD to meet directive 8140/8570.01-M requirements. Regulators and government rely on ANSI accreditation, because it provides confidence and trust in the outputs of an accredited program. Over 2.3 million CompTIA ISO/ANSI-accredited exams have been delivered since January 1, 2011.

What Skills Will You Learn?
HARDWARE : Attacks, Threats and Vulnerabilities

Focusing on more threats, attacks, and vulnerabilities on the Internet from newer custom devices that must be mitigated, such as IoT and embedded devices, newer DDoS attacks, and social engineering attacks based on current events.

SECURITY
Architecture and Design

Includes coverage of enterprise environments and reliance on the cloud, which is growing quickly as organizations transition to hybrid networks.

HARDWARE & NETWORK TROUBLESHOOTING

Implementation
Expanded to focus on administering identity, access management, PKI, basic cryptography, wireless, and end-to-end security.

WINDOWS OPERATING SYSTEMS

Operations and Incident Response
Covering organizational security assessment and incident response procedures, such as basic threat detection, risk mitigation techniques, security controls, and basic digital forensics.
SOFTWARE TROUBLESHOOTING
Governance, Risk and Compliance

Expanded to support organizational risk management and compliance to regulations, such as PCI-DSS, SOX, HIPAA, GDPR, FISMA, NIST, and CCPA.

Jobs that use CompTIA Security+
Security Administrator

Systems Administrator
Helpdesk Manager / Analyst

Network / Cloud Engineer
Security Engineer / Analyst

DevOps / Software Developer
IT Auditors

IT Project Manager

QUESTION 1
Which of the following will MOST likely adversely impact the operations of unpatched traditional programmable-logic controllers, running a back-end LAMP server and OT systems with human-management interfaces that are accessible over the Internet via a web interface? (Choose two.)

A. Cross-site scripting
B. Data exfiltration
C. Poor system logging
D. Weak encryption
E. SQL injection
F. Server-side request forgery

Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 2
A company recently transitioned to a strictly BYOD culture due to the cost of replacing lost or damaged corporate-owned mobile devices. Which of the following technologies would be BEST to balance the BYOD
culture while also protecting the company’s data?

A. Containerization
B. Geofencing
C. Full-disk encryption
D. Remote wipe

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
A network engineer has been asked to investigate why several wireless barcode scanners and wireless computers in a warehouse have intermittent connectivity to the shipping server. The barcode scanners and computers are all on forklift trucks and move around the warehouse during their regular use. Which of the following should the engineer do to determine the issue? (Choose two.)

A. Perform a site survey
B. Deploy an FTK Imager
C. Create a heat map
D. Scan for rogue access points
E. Upgrade the security protocols
F. Install a captive portal

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
Which of the following is MOST likely to outline the roles and responsibilities of data controllers and data processors?

A. SSAE SOC 2
B. PCI DSS
C. GDPR
D. ISO 31000

Correct Answer: C

Actualkey CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Exam pdf, Certkingdom CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 PDF

Best CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Certification, CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Training at certkingdom.com

2V0-62.21 Professional VMware Workspace ONE 21.X Exam

 

Professional VMware Workspace ONE 21.X

EXAM OVERVIEW
The Professional VMware Workspace ONE 21.X exam validates an individual can install, configure, manage, maintain and perform basic troubleshooting of VMware Workspace ONE and related solutions, as well as properly identify and differentiate any needed supporting products and components.

Exam Info
Duration 130 minutes
Number of Questions 60
Passing Score 300 Learn more
Format Multiple Choice, Multiple Choice Multiple Selection, Drag and Drop, Matching, Hot Area

Additional Resources
VCP Community
VMware Customer Connect Learning
VMware Press
VMware Certification Market Place

Exam Details:
(Last Updated: 5/21/2021) The Professional VMware Workspace ONE 21.X exam (2V0-62.21) which leads to VMware Certified Professional – Digital Workspace 2020 certification is a 60-item exam, with a passing score of 300 using a scaled method. Candidates are given an appointment time of 130 minutes, which includes five-minute seating time and adequate time to complete the exam for non-native English speakers. Actual exam time is 125 minutes. Exam Delivery This is a proctored exam delivered through Pearson VUE. For more information, visit the Pearson VUE website. Certification Information For details and a complete list of requirements and recommendations for attainment, please reference the VMware Education Services – Certification website.Minimally Qualified Candidate The Minimally Qualified Candidate has a working knowledge of the VMware Workspace ONE platform. The MQC installs, configures, manages, maintains, and performs basic troubleshooting of VMware Workspace ONE and related solutions using publicly available documents. The MQC is knowledgeable of software, infrastructure design, and implementation. The MQC is familiar with standard operating systems across devices, productivity applications, and technologies related to Workspace ONE configuration. The MQC has a minimum of 6 months of general IT experience and typically 6 months of VMware experience installing and configuring the Workspace ONE platform. The MQC must have all the knowledge contained in the VCP-Digital Workspace exam blueprint. Exam Sections VMware exam blueprint sections are now standardized to the seven sections below, some of which may NOT be included in the final exam blueprint depending on the exam objectives.

Section 1 – Architecture and Technologies
Section 2 – Products and Solutions
Section 3 – Planning and Designing
Section 4 – Installing, Configuring, and Setup
Section 5 – Performance-tuning, Optimization, and Upgrades
Section 6 – Troubleshooting and Repairing
Section 7 – Administrative and Operational Tasks

If a section does not have testable objectives in this version of the exam, it will be noted below, accordingly. The objective numbering may be referenced in your score report at the end of your testing event for further preparation should a retake of the exam be necessary.

Sections Included in this Exam

Section 1 –Architectures and Technologies
Objective 1.1 - Differentiate and illustrate the differences between physical architecture and logical architecture
Objective 1.2 - Differentiate between cloud computing and on-prem unified endpoint management
Objective 1.3 - Differentiate between endpoint operating systems as well as various manufacturer differences
Objective 1.4 - Describe and define identity and access management concepts
Objective 1.5 - Differentiate between traditional management and modern management
Objective 1.6 - Explain authentication methods (2 factor authentication, Kerberos, Identity Chain, SAML, SAML Transformation, Mobile SSO, etc.)
Objective 1.7 - Describe security concepts in relation to endpoint management (DMZ, Zero Trust, authentication, authorization, etc.) Section 2 – VMware Products and Solutions

Section 2 –VMware Products and Solutions
Objective 2.1 - Describe UEM + Access components and sub-components (AirWatch Cloud Connector, Workspace ONE Access Connector, Workspace ONE Assist, UAG, ENS, AWCM, LTE Connector, VMverify, Intelligent Hub, Drop-ship (Factory) Provisioning, etc.)
Objective 2.1.1 - Describe AirWatch Cloud Connector features and functions
Objective 2.1.2 - Describe Workspace ONE Access Connector features and functions
Objective 2.1.3 - Describe Workspace ONE Assist features and functions
Objective 2.1.4 - Describe UAG features and functions
Objective 2.1.5 - Describe ENS features and functions
Objective 2.1.6 - Describe AWCM features and functions
Objective 2.1.7 - Describe LTE Connector features and functions
Objective 2.1.8 - Describe VMverify features and functions
Objective 2.1.9 - Describe Intelligent Hub features and functions
Objective 2.1.10 - Describe Drop-ship (Factory) Provisioning) features and functions
Objective 2.2 - Differentiate and match use case for VMware products
Objective 2.3 - Explain VMware best practices when using VMware products
Objective 2.4 - Identify and describe Workspace ONE relevant Disaster Recovery, HA, Scalability (UEM, Access, AirWatch Cloud Connector, Workspace ONE Access Connector, UAG, etc.)
Objective 2.5 - Explain Workspace ONE Intelligence, dashboard, custom reports, sensors, etc.
Objective 2.6 - Explain Unified Access Gateway Workspace ONE Edge Services
Objective 2.7 - Explain use cases for Workspace ONE SDK
Objective 2.8 - Explain the use case for Windows 10 Modern Management transformation and migration (Workspace ONE Airlift)
Objective 2.9 - Describe desktop management use cases other than Windows

Section 3 – There are no testable objectives for this section

Section 4 – Installation, Configuration, and Setup
Objective 4.1 - Identify infrastructure requirements (minimums, maximums, and recommended sizing requirements, OS version support, database versions, email infrastructure, directory services, etc.)
Objective 4.2 - Install and configure Workspace ONE components
Objective 4.2.1 - Install and configure UEM components
Objective 4.2.1.1 - Configure Android Enterprise
Objective 4.2.1.2 - Configure Apple device enrollment and purchased content management
Objective 4.2.1.3 - Configure Certificate Authority Integration
Objective 4.2.1.4 - Configure Mobile Email Management (PowerShell integration, SEG, G-Suite, Office 365, Microsoft eXchange)
Objective 4.2.1.5 - Install and configure ACC
Objective 4.2.2 - Install and configure Access components (connectors, UAG)
Objective 4.2.3 - Configure UAG Edge Services (Tunnel, SEG and Content Gateway)
Objective 4.2.4 - Configure Directory Services (users and groups)
Objective 4.2.4.1 - Configure and test Active Directory connection
Objective 4.2.4.2 - Import Active Directory users and groups
Objective 4.3 - Configure branding for administrative consoles
Objective 4.4 - Configure Hub services
Objective 4.4.1 – Configure branding
Objective 4.4.2 – Configure catalog
Objective 4.4.3 – Configure people search
Objective 4.4.4 – Configure notifications
Objective 4.4.5 – Configure custom tab (homepage)
Objective 4.4.6 – Configure support tab
Objective 4.4.7 – Configure templates
Objective 4.4.8 – Configure new hire welcome

Section 5 - There are no testable objectives for this section
Section 6 – Troubleshooting and Repairing
Objective 6.1 - Understand the various logs and their purpose
Objective 6.2 - Detect networking misconfigurations (DNS, NTP, etc.)
Objective 6.3 - Identify endpoint enrollment and management non-connectivity
Objective 6.4 - Identify end-user authentication failures
Objective 6.5 - Use console to resolve device misconfigurations

Section 7 – Administrative and Operational Tasks
Objective 7.1 - Configure and manage device profiles for mobile and desktop endpoint OS
Objective 7.2 - Configure and manage certificate authority and certificate templates
Objective 7.3 - Manage Assignment Groups and Organization Groups
Objective 7.4 - Add and manage Accounts (users, admins, groups)
Objective 7.5 - Add, assign, and manage Resources
Objective 7.6 - Add, assign, and manage Content
Objective 7.7 - Configure and manage Email policies
Objective 7.8 - Configure and manage Compliance policies for mobile and desktop endpoints
Objective 7.9 - Perform device management on device endpoints
Objective 7.10 - Add and Manage SaaS, Web Applications on Workspace ONE Access
Objective 7.11 - Configure and manage connectors
Objective 7.12 - Manage UEM reporting
Objective 7.13 - Manage user and admin access on Workspace ONE Access Console
Objective 7.14 - Add and manage conditional access, access policy in Workspace ONE Access Console
Objective 7.15 - Manage authentication methods in Workspace ONE Access
Objective 7.16 - Configure privacy and security controls
Objective 7.17 - Create custom reports (Workspace ONE Intelligence)
Objective 7.18 - Configure and manage API settings
Objective 7.19 - Configure and manage automation, dashboard, and widget

Recommended Courses VMware Workspace ONE: Deploy and Manage [V21.x] - ILT VMware Workspace ONE: Deploy and Manage [V21.x] - On Demand VMware Workspace ONE: Skills for UEM [V21.x] - ILT VMware Workspace ONE: Skills for UEM [V21.x] – On Demand VMware Workspace ONE: Integrating Access with UEM [V21.x] - ILT VMware Workspace ONE: Integrating Access with UEM [V21.x] - On Demand

In addition to the recommended courses, item writers use the following references for information when writing exam questions. It is recommended that you study the reference content as you prepare to take the exam, in addition to any recommended training.
*Workspace ONE content in this exam based on v21.X. Review all v21.X and [U1] release notes and material for features and function.

QUESTION 1
As a Workspace ONE administrator, you have been tasked with creating a custom visualization for
management that shows device statistics, trust network threats, and application adoption metrics in a single view.
Which feature of Workspace ONE can be used?

A. Workspace ONE Intelligence Dashboards
B. Workspace ONE Access Application View
C. Workspace ONE Intelligence Automations
D. Workspace ONE UEM Device List View

Correct Answer: A

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2
Which Workspace ONE UEM feature can assist in sending event log information to a Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) tool?

A. Syslog Integration
B. Relay Server Integration
C. Certificate Authority Integration
D. File Storage Integration

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which two steps would an administrator complete to enable auto-discovery for their Workspace ONE UEM environment? (Choose two.)

A. Enter the email domain when installing the AirWatch Cloud Connector.
B. Verify the domain by accepting the link in the email that registered auto-discovery.
C. Register email domain within Workspace ONE UEM.
D. Enter the email domain when establishing directory services.
E. Email auto-discovery@workspaceone.com with the domain the administrator wants to register.

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
What two features of Hub Services can be enabled without enabling Workspace ONE Access and having the authentication mode set to Workspace ONE UEM? (Choose two.)

A. enable SSO for applications
B. enable People Search
C. notifications for iOS and Android
D. Hub Virtual Assistant Chatbot
E. Hub Catalog layout

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 5
Where is Hub Services component co-located?

A. Workspace ONE Intelligence
B. Workspace ONE Access
C. Workspace ONE Airlift
D. Workspace ONE UEM

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which two Workspace ONE UEM core components are required for all on-premises environments? (Choosetwo.)

A. Device Services
B. AirWatch Cloud Connector
C. Unified Access Gateway
D. Secure Email Gateway
E. Console Services

Correct Answer: AB

ACtualkey VMware 2V0-62.21 Exam pdf, Certkingdom VMware 2V0-62.21 PDF

Best VMware 2V0-62.21 Certification, VMware 2V0-62.21 Training at Certkingdom.com

500-220 Engineering Cisco Meraki Solutions v1.0 Exam

 

Engineering Cisco Meraki Solutions v1.0 (500-220)
Exam Description: The Engineering Cisco Meraki Solutions v1.0 (ECMS 500-220) is a 90-minute exam associated with the Cisco Meraki Solutions Specialist. This exam tests a candidate's knowledge and skills to engineer Meraki solutions including cloud management, design, implementing, monitoring, and troubleshooting. The courses, Engineering Cisco Meraki Solutions Part 1 and Part 2, help candidates to prepare for this exam.
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

15% 1.0 Cisco Meraki Cloud Management
1.1 Explain Cisco Meraki cloud architecture
1.2 Explain access methods to dashboard and devices
1.3 Explain organizational structure, segmentation and permissions
1.4 Explain licensing, co-termination, and renewals
1.5 Compare deployment workflows

30% 2.0 Design
2.1 Design scalable Meraki Auto VPN architectures
2.2 Explain deployment consideration for the vMX
2.3 Design dynamic path selection policies
2.4 Design stable, secure, and scalable routing deployments
2.5 Design Enterprise network services
2.5a Redundant networks and high availability
2.5b QOS strategy for voice and video
2.5c Applying security at layer 2
2.5d Firewall and IPS rules on MX and MR
2.5e Network access control solutions
2.6 Design Enterprise wireless services
2.6a High density wireless deployments
2.6b MR wireless networks for Enterprise
2.6c MR wireless networks for guest access
2.7 Compare endpoint device and application management methods
2.7a Device enrollment such as supervised and device owner
2.7b Application deployment

25% 3.0 Implementation
3.1 Configuring MX security appliances
3.1a SVI, dynamic routing and static routes
3.1b Auto VPN
3.1c Traffic shaping and SD-WAN
3.1d Threat protection and content filtering rules
3.1e Access policies and 802.1x
3.2 Configuring MS switches
3.2a SVI, dynamic routing and static routes
3.2b QoS using Meraki switching networks
3.2c Access policies and 802.1x
3.2d Replicate a switch configuration
3.3 Configuring MR wireless access points
3.3a SSIDs for Enterprise and BYOD deployments
3.3b Traffic shaping
3.3c RF profiles
3.3d Air Marshal
3.4 Configuring SM endpoint management
3.4a Management profiles
3.4b Security policies
3.4c Sentry for Meraki managed deployments
3.5 Configuring MV security cameras
3.5a Camera video and alerting
3.5b Retention settings
3.6 Configuring MI application assurance
3.6a Standard applications
3.6b Application thresholds

30% 4.0 Monitoring and Troubleshooting
4.1 Interpret information from monitoring and reporting tools
4.1a Alerts with Dashboard, SNMP, Syslog and Netflow in Dashboard
4.1b Logging and reporting in Dashboard
4.2 Describe how to use the dashboard API to monitor and maintain networks
4.3 Explain firmware upgrades
4.4 Troubleshooting Enterprise networks
4.4a Layer 2 technologies using Dashboard
4.4b Layer 3 technologies using Dashboard
4.4c Wireless client connectivity issues using Dashboard
4.4d Device local status pages
4.4e Security threats using Security Center
4.4f Application performance issues using Meraki Insight

QUESTION 1
When an SSID is configured with Sign-On Splash page enabled, which two settings must be configured for unauthenticated clients to have full network access and not be allow listed? (Choose two.)

A. Controller disconnection behavior
B. Captive Portal strength
C. Simultaneous logins
D. Firewall & traffic shaping
E. RADIUS for splash page settings

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
For which two reasons can an organization become “Out of License”? (Choose two.)

A. licenses that are in the wrong network
B. more hardware devices than device licenses
C. expired device license
D. licenses that do not match the serial numbers in the organization
E. MR licenses that do not match the MR models in the organization

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 3
Which Cisco Meraki best practice method preserves complete historical network event logs?

A. Configuring the preserved event number to maximize logging.
B. Configuring the preserved event period to unlimited.
C. Configuring a syslog server for the network.
D. Configuring Dashboard logging to preserve only certain event types.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which design requirement is met by implementing syslog versus SNMP?

A. when automation capabilities are needed
B. when proactive alerts for critical events must be generated
C. when organization-wide information must be collected
D. when information such as flows and client connectivity must be gathered

Correct Answer: D

Actualkey Cisco 500-220 Exam pdf, Certkingdom Cisco 500-220 PDF

Best Cisco 500-220 Certification, Cisco 500-220 Training at certkingdom.com

PT1-002 CompTIA PenTest+ Certification Exam

 

CompTIA PenTest+ is for cybersecurity professionals tasked with penetration testing and vulnerability management.

Why is it different?
CompTIA PenTest+ is the only penetration testing exam taken at a Pearson VUE testing center with both hands-on, performance-based questions and multiple-choice, to ensure each candidate possesses the skills, knowledge, and ability to perform tasks on systems. PenTest+ exam also includes management skills used to plan, scope, and manage weaknesses, not just exploit them.

PenTest+ is unique because our certification requires a candidate to demonstrate the hands-on ability and knowledge to test devices in new environments such as the cloud and mobile, in addition to traditional desktops and servers.

About the exam
The new PenTest+ (PT0-002) exam will launch October, 2021!

Beta exam registration available on April 13, 2021. Interested in taking the beta exam? Registration on the Pearson VUE site.

CompTIA PenTest+ assesses the most up-to-date penetration testing, and vulnerability assessment and management skills necessary to determine the resiliency of the network against attacks.
Successful candidates will have the intermediate skills required to customize assessment frameworks to effectively collaborate on and report findings.
Candidates will also have the best practices to communicate recommended strategies to improve the overall state of IT security.

CompTIA PenTest+ is compliant with ISO 17024 standards and approved by the US DoD to meet directive 8140/8570.01-M requirements. Regulators and government rely on ANSI accreditation, because it provides confidence and trust in the outputs of an accredited program. Over 2.3 million CompTIA ISO/ANSI-accredited exams have been delivered since January 1, 2011.

What Skills Will You Learn?
HARDWARE
PLANNING & SCOPING

Explain the importance of planning and key aspects of compliance-based assessments
WINDOWS OPERATING SYSTEMS
INFORMATION GATHERING &
VULNERABILITY IDENTIFICATION

Gather information to prepare for exploitation then perform a vulnerability scan and analyze results.
SOFTWARE TROUBLESHOOTING
ATTACKS & EXPLOITS

Exploit network, wireless, application, and RF-based vulnerabilities, summarize physical security attacks, and perform post-exploitation techniques
NETWORKING
PENETRATION TESTING TOOLS

Conduct information gathering exercises with various tools and analyze output and basic scripts (limited to: Bash, Python, Ruby, PowerShell)
HARDWARE & NETWORK TROUBLESHOOTING
REPORTING & COMMUNICATION

Utilize report writing and handling best practices explaining recommended mitigation strategies for discovered vulnerabilities
obs that use CompTIA PenTest+
Penetration Tester
Vulnerability Tester
Security Analyst (II)
Vulnerability Assessment Analyst
Network Security Operations
Application Security Vulnerability

Renewal
Keep your certification up to date with CompTIA’s Continuing Education (CE) program. It’s designed to be a continued validation of your expertise and a tool to expand your skillset. It’s also the ace up your sleeve when you’re ready to take the next step in your career.

Get the most out of your certification
Information technology is an incredibly dynamic field, creating new opportunities and challenges every day. Participating in our Continuing Education program will enable you to stay current with new and evolving technologies and remain a sought-after IT and security expert.

The CompTIA Continuing Education program
Your CompTIA PenTest+ certification is good for three years from the date of your exam. The CE program allows you to extend your certification in three-year intervals through activities and training that relate to the content of your certification.

It’s easy to renew
You can participate in a number of activities and training programs, including higher certifications, to renew your CompTIA PenTest+ certification. Collect at least 60 Continuing Education Units (CEUs) in three years and upload them to your certification account, and your CompTIA PenTest+ certification will automatically renew.

QUESTION 1
Which of the following should a penetration tester consider FIRST when engaging in a penetration test in a cloud environment?

A. Whether the cloud service provider allows the penetration tester to test the environment
B. Whether the specific cloud services are being used by the application
C. The geographical location where the cloud services are running
D. Whether the country where the cloud service is based has any impeding laws

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A penetration tester who is conducting a web-application test discovers a clickjacking vulnerability associated
with a login page to financial data. Which of the following should the tester do with this information to make this a successful exploit?

A. Perform XSS.
B. Conduct a watering-hole attack.
C. Use BeEF.
D. Use browser autopwn.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
A company that requires minimal disruption to its daily activities needs a penetration tester to perform
information gathering around the company’s web presence. Which of the following would the tester find MOST
helpful in the initial information-gathering steps? (Choose two.)

A. IP addresses and subdomains
B. Zone transfers
C. DNS forward and reverse lookups
D. Internet search engines
E. Externally facing open ports
F. Shodan results

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4
A penetration tester discovers that a web server within the scope of the engagement has already been
compromised with a backdoor. Which of the following should the penetration tester do NEXT?

A. Forensically acquire the backdoor Trojan and perform attribution
B. Utilize the backdoor in support of the engagement
C. Continue the engagement and include the backdoor finding in the final report
D. Inform the customer immediately about the backdoor

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which of the following are the MOST important items to include in the final report for a penetration test? (Choose two.)

A. The CVSS score of the finding
B. The network location of the vulnerable device
C. The vulnerability identifier
D. The client acceptance form
E. The name of the person who found the flaw
F. The tool used to find the issue

Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 6
A penetration tester who is performing a physical assessment of a company’s security practices notices the
company does not have any shredders inside the office building. Which of the following techniques would be
BEST to use to gain confidential information?

A. Badge cloning
B. Dumpster diving
C. Tailgating
D. Shoulder surfing

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
A penetration tester conducted an assessment on a web server. The logs from this session show the
following:
http://www.thecompanydomain.com/servicestatus.php?serviceID=892&serviceID=892 ‘ ;
DROP TABLE SERVICES; --
Which of the following attacks is being attempted?

A. Clickjacking
B. Session hijacking
C. Parameter pollution
D. Cookie hijacking
E. Cross-site scripting

Correct Answer: C

Actualkey CompTIA PT1-002 Exam pdf, Certkingdom CompTIA PT1-002 PDF

Best CompTIA PT1-002 Certification, CompTIA PT1-002 Training at certkingdom.com

GCP-GC-ADM Genesys Cloud Certified Professional - Contact Center Administration Exam

 

The Genesys Cloud Certified Professional - Contact Center Admin exam introduces the fundamental concepts and major components associated with the Contact Center feature set of the Genesys Cloud platform.

This exam provides an overview of the Genesys Cloud interface and presents scenarios to facilitate your understanding of the administration of a contact center. You will also gain familiarity with daily contact center monitoring and administration tasks.

Note: The Genesys Cloud Certified Professional (GCP-GC) certification is obtained by completing the following three exams (Contact Center Administration, Implementation, and Reporting & Analytics). The prerequisite for GCP-GC is the Genesys Cloud Certified Associate (GCA-GC) certification.

Target Audience
The Genesys Cloud Certified Professional - Contact Center Admin exam is intended for system administrators, contact center managers, project managers, and supervisors to help them monitor and administer the contact center. The exam is also useful for anyone else who needs to learn the basic functionality of Genesys Cloud Contact Center.

Course Objectives
Genesys Cloud Collaborate
Basic overview of the Genesys Cloud Platform and Administration
Overview of Genesys Cloud Collaborate
List the features of Genesys Cloud Contact Center
List the three levels of Contact Center licensing
Configure Automatic Call Distribution to optimize customer service
Describe ACD processing
Explain interaction flow and queue design
Evaluation and routing combination
Configure agent utilization
Configure ACD Skills and Language Skills
Configure wrap-up codes
Configure After Call Work
Activate and deactivate agents on queues
Test ACD call routing
Configure ACD email in Admin settings
Test ACD email routing
Describe ACD Messages
Purpose and capabilities of Genesys Cloud Architect
Features of Genesys Cloud Architect
Describe the options for Inbound
Describe how to create and edit System and User Prompts
Genesys Cloud Data Actions Integration
Describe the function and purpose of the Genesys Cloud data actions Integration
Scripting in a Genesys Cloud contact center
Describe Scripts and basic script functionality
Genesys Cloud Outbound Dialing
Describe the Outbound Dialing modes
Explain the use of Contact Lists
Configure and test an Outbound Power Dialing campaign
Use of Reports and Dynamic Views
List the main types of reports and describe their use
List the main Dynamic Views and describe their use
Configure and run an Interaction Details report
Quality Management in a Genesys Cloud contact center
Quality Policies Overview
Describe how to enable call recording on a Trunk
Create a recording policy
Create and publish an Evaluation form
Quality Evaluator and Quality Administrator dashboards
Workforce Management in a Genesys Cloud contact center
Workforce Management Overview
Working with Schedules
Benefits of scheduling agents
Create a manual schedule

QUESTION 1
A Queue is configured for Standard ACD routing and Disregard skills, next agent for the Evaluation Method.
What agent property is used to determine the next available agent?

A. Skill
B. Time since they last handled an ACD interaction
C. Cost
D. Department

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which definition matches the After Call Work option Mandatory, Time-boxed?

A. The agent may or may not complete after call work. The system will set them to Available after an interaction completes.
They are responsible for setting their availability appropriately if performing After Call Work.

B. The agent is automatically placed into an After Call Work status and the system will automatically set them to Available when the After Call Timeout is reached.
The agent may set themselves to Available if they complete their After Call Work early.

C. The agent is automatically placed into an After Call Work status and the system will automatically set them to Available when the After Call Timeout is reached.
The agent may not set themselves to Available if they complete their After Call Work early.

D. The agent is placed in an After Call Work status and must manually set their status back to available when their after call work is complete.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Currently, you manage all agents’ schedules by using a spreadsheet. This shows when each agent is working
when they are on breaks, and when they have meetings or other events that take them away from the queue.
You would like to be able to schedule agents in an easier and more automated way. What Genesys Cloud
Contact Center feature can you use to replace and automate the spreadsheet schedule?

A. Workforce Management
B. Workflow Process Automation
C. Genesys Cloud Architect
D. Genesys Cloud Reporting

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Select all the roles that are automatically assigned by default to the user who sets up the organization.
(Choose two.)

A. Employee
B. Master Admin
C. Genesys Cloud User
D. Admin
E. Telephony Admin

Correct Answer: AD

Actualkey Genesys GCP-GC-ADM Exam pdf, Certkingdom Genesys GCP-GC-ADM PDF

Best Genesys GCP-GC-ADM Certification, Genesys GCP-GC-ADM Training at certkingdom.com

250-439 Administration of Symantec IT Management Suite 8.1 (Broadcom) Exam

 

Administration of Symantec Client Management Suite 8.5
The certified candidate will demonstrate an understanding of the planning, designing, deploying and optimization of the Symantec Client Management Suite. This understanding serves as a basis of technical knowledge and competency for the Symantec Client Management Suite 8.5 solution in an enterprise environment.

To achieve this level of certification, candidates must pass the technical exam and accept the Symantec Certification Agreement.

Exam Details:
# of Questions: 65-75
Exam Duration: 90 minutes
Passing Score: 70%
Languages: English

Exam Study Guide
Recommended 3 months regular experience working with Symantec ITMS or CMS, SMS or AMS solutions and products with at least the ability to complete the following:
Create a high-level design of a basic Client Management Suite 8.5 implementation
Install the Client Management Suite 8.5 components, updates and perform post installation tasks
Import and discover endpoint resources
Create/Apply/Manage Filters, Targets & Organizational Views/Groups
Inventory managed computers
Configure the Software Catalog, Portal and Library
Deploy software packages
Download, stage, and deploy software updates
View and use reports to assist with managing computers
Create, configure, and deploy images to managed computers

Client Management Suite 8.1 or 8.5 Administration

Current Class Schedule

IT Management Suite Fundamentals
Available in the Symantec LearnCentral eLibrary

Optional Instructor-led Courses:
IT Management Suite 8.1 Administration
Current Class Schedule

ITMS 8.1 Diagnostics and Troubleshooting
Current Class Schedule

Asset Management Suite 8.1 or 8.5 Administration

Current Class Schedule

Additional online training is available 24/7 in the Symantec eLibrary.

Note: If you do not have prior experience with this product, it is recommended that you complete an in-person, classroom training or Virtual Academy virtual classroom training class in preparation for the SCS exam. If you have experience with this product, you may find an online course equivalent to be sufficient. Be cautioned that attendance in a training course does not guarantee passage of a certification exam.


QUESTION 1
Which two (2) fields are essential to tracking assets when creating a warranty contract in IT Management
Suite 8.1? (Choose two.)

A. Contract's Assigned User
B. Covered Hardware
C. Contract's Location
D. Start and End Date
E. Internal Reference

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
An administrator has been notified that a new office location will be opening within a few weeks. The office is a
large site that will have 8,000 managed endpoints. The data center is located in Lindon, Utah and the office is
located in Houston, Texas.
What is the minimum number of site servers needed to support the new office location?

A. Four site servers
B. Two site servers
C. One site server
D. Three site servers

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
An administrator needs to ensure the following functionality for managed computers in an IT Management
Suite 8.1 environment:
- Monitoring hardware and software
- Scheduling software installations and file updates
- Collecting basic inventory information
- Managing policies and packages
Which components work together to provide this functionality for managed computers?

A. Notification Server and Symantec Management Agent
B. Symantec Management Console and Internet Gateway
C. Symantec Management Console and Symantec Management Agent
D. Notification Server and Internet Gateway

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
How can an administrator quickly view and export report results while creating a filter based on the location of computers?

A. Executing the Filter Results Report Builder
B. Executing Assets by Location Organizational View Builder
C. Executing and saving the IT Analytics Computers by Location Report Builder
D. Executing the Computers by Location Report Builder

Correct Answer: A

Actualkey Symantec SCS 250-439 Exam pdf, Certkingdom Symantec SCS 250-439 PDF

Best Symantec SCS 250-439 Certification, Symantec SCS 250-439 Training at certkingdom.com