1z0-996-21 Oracle Utilities Customer Cloud Service 2021 Implementation Essentials Exam

 

Earn associated certifications
Passing this exam is required to earn these certifications. Select each certification title below to view full requirements.

Oracle Utilities Customer Cloud Service 2021 Certified Implementation Specialist
Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 90 Minutes
Exam Price: Rs.40,575
Number of Questions: 60
Passing Score: 68%
Validation: Exam has been validated against Oracle Utilities Customer Cloud Service 21A
Policy: Cloud Recertification

Take recommended training
Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional):

In the subscription: Oracle Utilities Learning Subscription
Additional Preparation and Information
A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs and/or field experience) provides the best preparation for passing the exam.

Review exam topics
Customer Information
Maintain and Manage Customer Information

Financial Transactions
Manage Financial Transactions

Billing
Maintain Bill Segments
Complete Bills

Rates
Manage and Apply Rates
Apply Proration
Apply Bill Factors

Payments
Manage Payments
Manage Overpayment and Payment Distribution

Adjustments
Configure and Manage Adjustments

Monitor Overdue Debt
Configure and Manage Credit & Collections and Overdue Processes
Manage Payment Arrangements and Pay Plans

Devices & Measuring Components
Explain the concept of a measuring component and the strcutures that represent them
Explain the relationship between devices and measureing components
Explain the different types of measuring components
Configure a device type
Configure a new measuring component type
Configure a new device config type and associate a measuring component to a device

Service Points & Install Events
Explain the concept of an install event and the relationship between devices and service points

Measurements
Explain the differences between initial measurements, final measurements, and usage
Explain the high level process of loading measurements through to calculating usage
Explain the derived values and how they are associated with the final measurements
Configure a new derive value algorithm
Explain three types of IMDs and the differences between them
Explain the IMD exception statuses and the Automatic Retry functionality

VEE
Explain the difference between critical validations and validation rules, including when critical validations are executed and when validation rules are executed.
Explain the VEE process, including the data prepration steps that are executed immediately prior to entering VEE processing,w hat data is prassed into the VEE engine and what happens during VEE execution for a given IMD
Configure new VEE groups that contain base packate VEE rules and apply a VEE group to a device or device type
Configure eligibility criteria and criteria field value retrieval algorithms to determine if a rule should be applied.
Expalin the categories of IMD exceptions (generated by VEE rules)

Usage Subscriptions
Explain the concept of usage subscriptions
Explain the possible relationships between measuring components, service points and usage subscriptions
Design and set up the admin data required to effectively configure a usage subscription

Usage
Explain the usage calculation process
Explain the relationships between usage transactions and usage subscriptions
Use the Get Scalar Details usage rule to retrieve scalar measurements for scalar internal measuring components

Fieldwork and Service Order Management
Explain the concept of a Service Order ("Orchrestrator") Activity
Explain the concept of Service Order Children Activities

Operational Device Management
Explain the role of assets and components
Explain the specifications and their relationship to assets

QUESTION 1
Your client has three requirements:
1. Apply validation on meter reads coming from the Data Collectors.
2. If a meter read does not pass the validation, an error will be generated and assigned to a user.
3. Retry the validation every 30 minutes for the errors in case the issue is related to configuration.
Which statement describes the base functions you should use?

A. If a To Do entry is created on the VEE exception, the user will need to discard the IMD and a new IMD will be loaded after 30 minutes.
B. If a To Do entry is created on the VEE exception, the IMD’s Next Retry Date/Time is set to 30 minutes, and then processed by the algorithm D1-COMP-TD (Complete To Do Entries).
C. If a To Do entry is created on the VEE exception, the IMD’s Next Retry Date/Time is set to 30 minutes, and then processed by the algorithm D1-CRE-IMDTD (Create To Do).
D. If a To Do entry is created on the VEE exception, the user will need to discard the IMD and a new IMD will be manually loaded.
E. If a To Do entry is created on the VEE exception, the IMD’s Next Retry Date/Time is set to 30 minutes, and then processed by the algorithm D1-IMD-RETRY (Retry Initial Measurement Data Processing).

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
When creating a new business object for a service point (SP), what items are required to be able to view and update the new elements associated with the SP?

A. Schema, Validation Algorithm, and Maintenance UI Map
B. Maintenance Object, Application Service, and Schema
C. Display UI Map, Display Map Service Script, and Maintenance UI Map
D. Validation Algorithm, Post Processing Algorithm, and Lifecycle

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
As part of the service order processing, the algorithm D1-CNSPINSDV (Connect SP and/or Install Device)
determines if a specific activity needs to be created based on the state of the service point.
Based on the status of the service point, what can this algorithm create?

A. Device Configuration
B. Device
C. Service Point
D. Smart Meter Command

Actualkey Oracle 1z0-996-21 Exam pdf, Certkingdom Oracle 1z0-996-21 PDF

Best Oracle 1z0-996-21 Certification, Oracle 1z0-996-21 Training at certkingdom.com

VMware 5V0-32.21 VMware Cloud Provider Specialist Exam

 

PRODUCT :VMware Cloud Director, Cloud Provider Platform, Cloud Provider Pod, Cloud Provider Hub, VMware Cloud Foundation
EXAM LANGUAGE : English
Associated Certification : VMware Specialist - Cloud Provider 2021
Duration : 110 Minutes
Number of Questions : 53
Passing Score : 300 Learn More
Format :  Single and Multiple Choice, Proctored

EXAM OVERVIEW
This exam tests expertise in deploying and managing VMware Cloud Director and demonstrates knowledge of the overall Cloud Provider Platform.

PREPARE FOR THE EXAM

Exam Delivery
This is aproctored exam delivered through Pearson VUE. For more information, visit the Pearson VUE website

Badge Information
For details and a complete list of requirements and recommendations for attainment, please reference theVMware Education Services

Certification website

Minimally Qualified Candidate
The minimally qualified candidate should have one or more years of experience with VMware Cloud Director and the service platforms; more than a year of hands-on experience with VMware Cloud Provider Platform; and a year or more experience in storage and networking. It is strongly recommended thatthis person also have successfully completed the VCD Fundamentals training and have a current VCP in CMA, DCV, DTM or NV.The successful candidate will likely hold additional industry-recognized IT certifications or accreditations. The MQC should have all the knowledge contained in the exam sections listed below.

Exam Sections
The exam sections and objectives outline the range of content that can be included in the exam. Some objectives may not have associated questions.

Section 1 –VMware vCloud Director Architecture
Objective 1.1 –Identify the function of VMware Cloud Director cell architecture and services.
Objective 1.2 –Identify the function of VMware Cloud Director resource abstractions.
Objective 1.3 –Identify the function of VMware Cloud Director networking concepts.
Objective 1.4 –Identify the function of VMware Cloud Director storage concepts.

Section 2 –VMware Products and Solutions
Objective 2.1 –Identify the components of the Cloud Provider Platform.
Objective 2.2 –Identify the functionality of VMware vCloud Usage Meter.
Objective 2.3 –Identify the functionality of VMware vCloud Usage Insight and VMware Commerce Portal.
Objective 2.4 –Identify use cases of Cloud Foundation.
Objective 2.5 –Identify use cases of Container Service Extension.
Objective 2.6 –Identify use cases of App Launch Pad.
Objective 2.7 –Identify use cases of Object Storage Service.
Objective 2.8 –Identify use cases of vRealize Orchestrator.
Objective 2.9 –Identify components of Cloud Director Availability.
Objective 2.10 –Identify use cases of Cloud Director Availability.
Objective 2.11–Identify components of vRealize Operations Tenant App for Cloud Director.
Objective 2.12–Identify use cases for vRealize Operations Tenant App for Cloud Director.

Section 3 –Planning and Designing –No testable objectives for this section

Section 4 –Configure and install VMware vCloud Director
Objective 4.1 –Given an installation scenario, identify hardware and software requirements.
Objective 4.2 –Identify the steps to install and configure VMware Cloud Director.
Objective 4.3 –Given a scenario, identify the appropriate configuration of VMware Cloud Director networking.
Objective 4.4 –Given a scenario, identify the appropriate configuration of VMware vSphere resources.
Objective 4.5 –Given a scenario, identify the appropriate configuration of VMware Storage.
Objective 4.6 –Given a scenario, identify the appropriate configuration of VMware Cloud Director resource abstractions.
Objective 4.7 –Identify the steps to configure and enable identity provider functionality.
Objective 4.8 –Create and manage SSL certificates
Objective 4.9 –Identify the load balancing requirements for VMware Cloud Director.
Objective 4.10 –Identify the steps to configure Central Point of Management (CPoM).
Objective 4.11 –Identify the requirements to configure VMware vCloud Usage Meter.

Section5–Performance-tuning, Optimization, and Upgrades

Objective 5.1 –Given an installation scenario, identify hardware and software requirements.

Section 6 –Troubleshooting and Repairin6
Objective 5.1 Identify locations for VMware Cloud Director logs.

Section 7 –Administration and Operations of VMware vCloud Director
Objective 7.1 -Identify the steps to add resources to VMware Cloud Director.
Objective 7.2 –Identify how to manage cloud resources using VMware Cloud Director.
Objective 7.3 –Identify how to manage organizations in VMware Cloud Director.
Objective 7.4 –Identify the Organization Virtual Data Center (oVDC) allocation models in VMware Cloud Director.
Objective 7.5 –Identify how to manage catalogs using VMware Cloud Director user interface.
Objective 7.6 –Identify default and custom VMware Cloud Director user roles and groups.
Objective 7.7 –Identify the steps to configure and manage vApps.
Objective 7.8 –Identify the steps to configure and manage Virtual Machines (VMs).
Objective 7.9 –Identify how to configure and apply VMware Cloud Director Availability Policies and SLA Profiles.
Objective 7.10 –Identify the available tenant networking objects in VMware Cloud Director.Objective
Objective 7.11 –Identify the functionality of Data Center Groups.
Objective 7.12 Identify how to configure VMware Cloud Director for multi-site management.

Recommended Courses
VMware vCloud Director: Install, Configure, Manage

QUESTION 1
An administrator is configuring and managing multisite deployments.
Which Association Member Status is an invalid status?

A. Inactive
B. Asymmetric
C. Active
D. Unreachable

Correct Answer: A

Reference:
https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Cloud-Director/10.3/vcd_103_spportal.pdf (59)

QUESTION 2
The VMware Cloud Director administrator wants to make sure that the system is able to collect log bundles from all cells at once.
How should the administrator accomplish this goal?

A. Install vRealize Log Insight agent on each cell to redirect logs to a centralized location.
B. Configure a syslog server on each of the cells, and request the logs from the syslog server.
C. Map the log location on the primary cell to a shared folder on each of the other cells in the server group, ensuring they all have read/write rights on the primary.
D. Make sure the NFS server allows read-write access to the shared location by the root system account on each cell.

Correct Answer: D

Reference:
https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-Cloud-Director/10.2/vcd_102_install.pdf (24)

QUESTION 3
Which three steps are required to enable east/west firewall in VMware Cloud Director Tenant Portal? (Choose three.)

A. Click on Data Center Group and create a new Data Center Group
B. Go to Edge Gateways and enable firewall on one of the Edge Gateways
C. Go to Networking and enable Distributed Firewall for one of the Network inside the Network section
D. Activate Distributed Firewall inside the Data Center Group
E. Login to Customer Organization and go to Networking Section of Tenant Portal
F. Enable the firewall in NSX-T

Correct Answer: ACD

Actualkey VMware 5V0-32.21 Exam pdf, Certkingdom VMware 5V0-32.21 PDF

Best VMware 5V0-32.21 Certification, VMware 5V0-32.21 Training at certkingdom.com

Oracle 1z0-1046-21 Oracle Global Human Resources Cloud 2021 Implementation Essentials Exam

 

Earn associated certifications
Passing this exam is required to earn these certifications. Select each certification title below to view full requirements.
Oracle Global Human Resources Cloud 2021 Certified Implementation Specialist

Format: Multiple Choice
Duration: 90 Minutes
Exam Price: Rs.40,575
Number of Questions: 58
Passing Score: 70%
Validation: This exam has been validated against 21B.
Policy: Cloud Recertification

Take recommended training
Complete one of the courses below to prepare for your exam (optional):

In the subscription: Oracle Global Human Resources Cloud Learning Subscription
Additional Preparation and Information

A combination of Oracle training and hands-on experience (attained via labs and/or field experience) provides the best preparation for passing the exam.

People Management
Explain Person and Employment Model
Manage the workforce lifecycle
Maintain worker directories
Maintain workforce information
Configure Directory Person Keyword Searches
Using the HCM Design Studio

Workforce Structures
Create organizations and divisions
Use effective dating and actions
Set Up Enterprise HCM Information
Create Legal Entities for HCM
Define Workforce Structures
Define Grades
Define Jobs
Define Positions
Define Geographies
Define Enterprise Structure

Checklists, Schedules, and Trees
Create Checklists
(New) Configure Journeys
Define Schedules
Configure Profile Options and Lookups
Define Calendar Events and Geography Trees
Configure Trees

Workflow, Approvals, and Notifications
Explain Approval Policies
Manage Approval Rules and Approver Types
Deploy Notifications
Manage Approval Transactions
(New) Use Alert Composer

QUESTION 1
A human resource specialist is promoting an employee. While promoting an employee, the human resource
specialist is required to enter the promotion date, promotion action, and promotion reason. However, the
promotion reason list of values does not list an appropriate reason.
Which two options can help the human resource specialist understand the Action framework available in the application? (Choose two.)

A. Action Reasons are seeded and can be defined by a user.
B. Action Types are seeded and cannot be defined by a user.
C. Actions are seeded and cannot be defined by a user.
D. Action Reasons are seeded and cannot be defined by a user.

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
Which Approval Types are supported while configuring the Managing Approval Rules: Promote transaction?

A. Data Role, Application Role, Approval Groups, Management Hierarchy, Position Hierarchy, Self Auto Approve, User
B. Application Role, Approval Groups, Management Hierarchy, Position Hierarchy, Representative, Self Auto Approve, User
C. Application Role, Approval Groups, Management Hierarchy, Parent Position, Representative, User, Self Auto Approve
D. Enterprise Role, Application Role, Approval Groups, Parent Position, Representative, User, Self Auto Approve

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Availability (work time) can be defined in HCM Cloud in different ways.
In what order does the application search for an employee’s schedule, before applying it to an assignment?

A. Standard working hours, Primary work schedule, Employment work week, Published schedules
B. Published schedules, Employment work week, Primary work schedule, Standard working hours
C. Published schedules, Primary work schedule, Employment work week, Standard working hours
D. Employment work week, Published schedules, Primary work schedule, Standard working hours

Correct Answer: B

Actualkey Oracle 1z0-1046-21 Exam pdf, Certkingdom Oracle 1z0-1046-21 PDF

Best Oracle 1z0-1046-21 Certification, Oracle 1z0-1046-21 Training at certkingdom.com

MS-100 Microsoft 365 Identity and Services Exam, August 5, 2021 updated version

This exam was updated on August 5, 2021. Following the current exam guide, we have included a version of the exam guide with Track Changes set to “On,” showing the changes that were made to the exam on that date.

Audience Profile
Candidates for this exam are Microsoft 365 Enterprise Administrators who take part in evaluating, planning, migrating, deploying, and managing Microsoft 365 services. They perform Microsoft 365 tenant management tasks for an enterprise, including its identities, security, compliance, Power Platform, and supporting technologies.

Candidates have a working knowledge of Microsoft 365 workloads and should have been an administrator for at least one
one Microsoft 365 workload (Exchange, SharePoint, Teams), and Windows as a ServiceExchange, SharePoint, Teams, or Windows 10 deployment.
Candidates also have a working knowledge of networking, server administration, and IT fundamentals such as DNS, Active Directory, and PowerShell.

Skills Measured
NOTE: The bullets that follow each of the skills measured are intended to illustrate how we are assessing that skill. This list is NOT definitive or exhaustive.
NOTE: Most questions cover features that are General Availability (GA). The exam may contain questions on Preview features if those features are commonly used.

Design and Implement Microsoft 365 Services (25-30%)
Plan architecture
 plan integration of Microsoft 365 and on-premises environments
 identify deployment workloads team
 plan an identity and authentication solution
 plan enterprise application modernization

Deploy a Microsoft 365 tenant
 manage domains
 configure organizational settings
 complete the organizational profile
 add a Microsoft partner or work with Microsoft FastTrack
 complete the subscription setup wizard
 plan and create a tenant
 edit an organizational profile
 plan and create subscription(s)
 configure tenant-wide workload settings

Manage Microsoft 365 subscription and tenant health
 manage service health alerts
 create and manage service requests
 create internal service health response plan
 monitor service health
 monitor license allocations
 configure and review reports, including Power BI, Operations Management Suite (OMS),Azure Monitor logs, Log Analytics workspaces, and Microsoft 365 reporting
 schedule and review security and compliance reports
 schedule and review usage metrics

Plan migration of users and data
 identify data to be migrated and migration methods
 identify users and mailboxes to be migrated and migration methods
 plan migration of on-premises users and groups
 import PST files

Manage User Identity and Roles (25-30%)

Design identity strategy
 evaluate requirements and solutions for synchronization
 evaluate requirements and solutions for identity management
 evaluate requirements and solutions for authentication

Plan identity synchronization
 design directory synchronization
 implement directory synchronization with directory services, federation services, and

Azure endpoints by using Azure AD Connect sync
 plan for directory synchronization using Azure AD cloud sync

Manage identity synchronization with Azure Active Directory (Azure AD)
 configure and manage directory synchronization by using Azure AD cloud sync
 configure directory synchronization by using Azure AD Connect
 monitor Azure AD Connect Health
 manage Azure AD Connect synchronization
 configure object filters
 configure password synchronization
 implement multi-forest AD Connect scenarios

Manage Azure AD identities
 plan Azure AD identities
 implement and manage self-service password reset (SSPR)
 manage access reviews
 manage groups
 manage passwords
 manage product licenses
 manage users
 perform bulk user management

Manage roles
 plan user roles
 manage admin roles
 allocate roles for workloads
 manage role allocations by using Azure AD

Manage Access and Authentication (15-20%)

Manage authentication
 design an authentication method
 configure authentication
 implement an authentication method
 manage authentication
 monitor authentication

Plan and implement secure access
 design a conditional access solution
 implement entitlement packages
 implement Azure AD Identity Protection
 manage identity protection
 implement conditional access
 manage conditional access
 implement and secure access for guest and external users

Configure application access
 configure application registration in Azure AD
 configure Azure AD Application Proxy
 publish enterprise apps in Azure AD

Plan Office 365 Workloads and Applications (25-30%)

Plan for Microsoft 365 Apps deployment
 plan for Microsoft connectivity
 manage Microsoft 365 Apps
 plan for Office online
 assess readiness using Microsoft analytics
 plan Microsoft 365 App compatibility
 manage Office 365 software downloads
 plan for Microsoft apps updates
 plan Microsoft telemetry and reporting

Plan for messaging deployments
 plan migration strategy
 plan messaging deployment
 identify hybrid requirements
 plan for connectivity
 plan for mail routing
 plan email domains

Plan for Microsoft SharePoint Online and OneDrive for Business
 plan migration strategy
 plan external share settings
 identify hybrid requirements
 manage access configurations
 manage Microsoft groups
 manage SharePoint tenant and site settings

Plan for Microsoft Teams infrastructure
 plan for communication and call quality and capacity
 plan for Phone System
 plan Microsoft Teams deployment
 plan Microsoft Teams organizational settings
 plan for guest and external access
 plan for Microsoft Teams hybrid connectivity and co-existence

Plan Microsoft Power Platform integration
 implement Microsoft Power Platform Center of Excellence (CoE) starter kit
 plan for Power Platform workload deployments
 plan resource deployment
 plan for connectivity (and data flow)
 manage environments
 manage resources

Actualkey Microsoft MS-100 Exam, Certkingdom Microsoft MS-100 PDF

Best Microsoft MS-100 Certification, Microsoft MS-100 Training at certkingdom.com

QUESTION 1
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
Your company purchases a new financial application named App1.
From Cloud Discovery in Microsoft Cloud App Security, you view the Discovered apps page and discover that
many applications have a low score because they are missing information about domain registration and consumer popularity.
You need to prevent the missing information from affecting the score.
What should you configure from the Cloud Discover settings?

A. App tags
B. Score metrics
C. Organization details
D. Default behavior

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You have a Microsoft 365 tenant that contains a Microsoft Power Platform environment.
You need to ensure that only specific users can create new environments.
What should you do in the Power Platform admin center?

A. From Data policies, create a new data policy.
B. From Data integration, create a new connection set.
C. From Power Platform settings, modify the Governance settings for the environment.
D. From Environments, modify the behaviour settings for the default environment.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which migration solution should you recommend for Project1?

A. From Exchange Online PowerShell, run the New-MailboxImportRequest cmdlet.
B. From Exchange Online PowerShell, run the New-MailboxExportRequest cmdlet.
C. From Exchange admin center, start the migration and select Remote move migration.
D. From the Exchange admin center, start the migration and select Cutover migration.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Project1: During Project1, the mailboxes of 100 users in the sales department will be moved to Microsoft 365.
Fabrikam does NOT plan to implement identity federation.
ll users must be able to exchange email messages successfully during Project1 by using their current email address.
During Project1, some users will have mailboxes in Microsoft 365 and some users will have mailboxes in
Exchange on-premises. To enable users to be able to exchange email messages successfully during Project1
by using their current email address, we’ll need to configure hybrid Exchange.
To migrate mailboxes in a hybrid Exchange configuration, you use the Exchange admin center to perform

Remote move migrations.
Note:
There are several versions of this question in the exam. The question has two possible correct answers:
From Exchange admin center, start the migration and select Remote move migration.
From the Microsoft 365 admin center, start a data migration and click Exchange as the data service.
Other incorrect answer options you may see on the exam include the following:
From the Exchange admin center, start a migration and select Staged migration.
From the Microsoft 365 admin center, start a data migration and click Upload PST as the data service.
From the Microsoft 365 admin center, start a data migration and click Outlook as the data service.
From the Exchange admin center, start a migration and select Cutover migration.

QUESTION 4
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription that contains an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com.
Corporate policy states that user passwords must not include the word Contoso.
What should you do to implement the corporate policy?

A. From the Azure Active Directory admin center, configure the Password protection settings.
B. From the Microsoft 365 admin center, configure the Password policy settings.
C. From Azure AD Identity Protection, configure a sign-in risk policy.
D. From the Azure Active Directory admin center, create a conditional access policy.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Your network contains an on-premises Active Directory forest.
You are evaluating the implementation of Microsoft 365 and the deployment of an authentication strategy.
You need to recommend an authentication strategy that meets the following requirements:
Allows users to sign in by using smart card-based certificates
Allows users to connect to on-premises and Microsoft 365 services by using SSO
Which authentication strategy should you recommend?

A. password hash synchronization and seamless SSO
B. federation with Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS)
C. pass-through authentication and seamless SSO

Correct Answer: B

Updated Version SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ 2021 Exam Free Training

 

The CompTIA Security+ certification exam will verify the successful candidate has the knowledge and skills required to assess the security posture of an enterprise environment and recommend and implement appropriate security solutions; monitor and secure hybrid environments, including cloud, mobile, and IoT; operate with an awareness of applicable laws and policies, including principles of governance, risk, and compliance; identify, analyze, and respond to security events and incidents

Number of Questions Maximum of 90 questions
Type of Questions Multiple choice and performance-based
Length of Test 90 minutes
Passing Score 750 (on a scale of 100-900)
Recommended Experience CompTIA Network+ and two years of experience in IT administration with a security focus
Languages English, Japanese, Portuguese and Simplified Chinese English, Japanese
Retirement English retires: July 31, 2021
All other languages retire: Q1 2022
Usually three years after launch
Testing Provider Pearson VUE
Testing Centers : Online Testing

Official CompTIA Content (OCC) has been designed from the ground up to help you learn and master the material in your certification exam. Trust self-paced CompTIA study guides that are

Clearly written and structured.
Flexible so you can learn at any pace.
Focused on your exam success.

Save With a Bundle
CompTIA Training bundles are a great way to continue your learning process in every stage of your exam preparation. Complement a study guide with popular training options such as:

Learn online with CertMaster Learn.
Apply your knowledge with CertMaster Labs
Practice and prepare for your exam with CertMaster Practice.

Why is it different?
More choose Security+ - chosen by more corporations and defense organizations than any other certification on the market to validate baseline security skills and for fulfilling the DoD 8570 compliance.
Security+ proves hands-on skills – the only baseline cybersecurity certification emphasizing hands-on practical skills, ensuring the security professional is better prepared to problem solve a wider variety of today’s complex issues.
More job roles turn to Security+ to supplement skills – baseline cybersecurity skills are applicable across more of today’s job roles to secure systems, software and hardware.
Security+ is aligned to the latest trends and techniques – covering the most core technical skills in risk assessment and management, incident response, forensics, enterprise networks, hybrid/cloud operations, and security controls, ensuring high-performance on the job.

Two people looking at many monitors.

About the exam
CompTIA Security+ (SY0-501) English language exam will retire on July 31, 2021.

The new Security+ (SY0-601) is now available.

CompTIA Security+ is the first security certification a candidate should earn. It establishes the core knowledge required of any cybersecurity role and provides a springboard to intermediate-level cybersecurity jobs. Security+ incorporates best practices in hands-on troubleshooting, ensuring candidates have practical security problem-solving skills required to:

Assess the security posture of an enterprise environment and recommend and implement appropriate security solutions
Monitor and secure hybrid environments, including cloud, mobile, and IoT
Operate with an awareness of applicable laws and policies, including principles of governance, risk, and compliance
Identify, analyze, and respond to security events and incidents

Security+ is compliant with ISO 17024 standards and approved by the US DoD to meet directive 8140/8570.01-M requirements. Regulators and government rely on ANSI accreditation, because it provides confidence and trust in the outputs of an accredited program. Over 2.3 million CompTIA ISO/ANSI-accredited exams have been delivered since January 1, 2011.

What Skills Will You Learn?
HARDWARE : Attacks, Threats and Vulnerabilities

Focusing on more threats, attacks, and vulnerabilities on the Internet from newer custom devices that must be mitigated, such as IoT and embedded devices, newer DDoS attacks, and social engineering attacks based on current events.

SECURITY
Architecture and Design

Includes coverage of enterprise environments and reliance on the cloud, which is growing quickly as organizations transition to hybrid networks.

HARDWARE & NETWORK TROUBLESHOOTING

Implementation
Expanded to focus on administering identity, access management, PKI, basic cryptography, wireless, and end-to-end security.

WINDOWS OPERATING SYSTEMS

Operations and Incident Response
Covering organizational security assessment and incident response procedures, such as basic threat detection, risk mitigation techniques, security controls, and basic digital forensics.
SOFTWARE TROUBLESHOOTING
Governance, Risk and Compliance

Expanded to support organizational risk management and compliance to regulations, such as PCI-DSS, SOX, HIPAA, GDPR, FISMA, NIST, and CCPA.

Jobs that use CompTIA Security+
Security Administrator

Systems Administrator
Helpdesk Manager / Analyst

Network / Cloud Engineer
Security Engineer / Analyst

DevOps / Software Developer
IT Auditors

IT Project Manager

QUESTION 1
Which of the following will MOST likely adversely impact the operations of unpatched traditional programmable-logic controllers, running a back-end LAMP server and OT systems with human-management interfaces that are accessible over the Internet via a web interface? (Choose two.)

A. Cross-site scripting
B. Data exfiltration
C. Poor system logging
D. Weak encryption
E. SQL injection
F. Server-side request forgery

Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 2
A company recently transitioned to a strictly BYOD culture due to the cost of replacing lost or damaged corporate-owned mobile devices. Which of the following technologies would be BEST to balance the BYOD
culture while also protecting the company’s data?

A. Containerization
B. Geofencing
C. Full-disk encryption
D. Remote wipe

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
A network engineer has been asked to investigate why several wireless barcode scanners and wireless computers in a warehouse have intermittent connectivity to the shipping server. The barcode scanners and computers are all on forklift trucks and move around the warehouse during their regular use. Which of the following should the engineer do to determine the issue? (Choose two.)

A. Perform a site survey
B. Deploy an FTK Imager
C. Create a heat map
D. Scan for rogue access points
E. Upgrade the security protocols
F. Install a captive portal

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
Which of the following is MOST likely to outline the roles and responsibilities of data controllers and data processors?

A. SSAE SOC 2
B. PCI DSS
C. GDPR
D. ISO 31000

Correct Answer: C

Actualkey CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Exam pdf, Certkingdom CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 PDF

Best CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Certification, CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Training at certkingdom.com