C_THR85_1608 SAP Certified Application Associate SAP SuccessFactors Succession Management Q3/2016

 

Description
The "SAP Certified Application Associate - SAP SuccessFactors Succession Management 2H/2020" certification exam verifies that the candidate possesses the basic knowledge in the area of the SAP SuccessFactors Succession Management application. This certificate proves that the candidate has a basic and overall understanding within this consultant profile of the industry solution, and can implement this knowledge practically in projects under guidance of an experienced consultant. It is recommended as an entry-level qualification to allow consultants to get acquainted with the fundamentals of SAP SuccessFactors Succession Management.

Notes
To ensure success, SAP recommends combining education courses and hands-on experience to prepare for your certification exam as questions will test your ability to apply the knowledge you have gained in training.
You are not allowed to use any reference materials during the certification test (no access to online documentation or to any SAP system).
This certification is not intended for customers. If you are a customer administrator, please explore the customer training catalogue and become accredited via the SFX Accreditation program.
Please note that with passing this exam you will be asked to keep your certification current with every new product release. For more information click here . Once you pass the exam, you will be required to pass regular assessments to stay current for all subsequent SAP SuccessFactors releases to maintain your certification status and SAP Global Certification digital badge. SAP Learning Hub subscription will be required.

Topic Areas
Please see below the list of topics that may be covered within this certification and the courses that cover them. Its accuracy does not constitute a legitimate claim; SAP reserves the right to update the exam content (topics, items, weighting) at any time.

Nominations > 12%
Select the nomination type and identify nomination methods.
THR80 (SUCCESSFACTORS HCM SUITE)
THR85 (SUCCESSFACTORS HCM SUITE)

Position Management > 12%
Create and configure MDF positions.
THR80 (SUCCESSFACTORS HCM SUITE)
THR85 (SUCCESSFACTORS HCM SUITE)

Succession Data Model > 12%
Configure the Succesion Data Model.
THR80 (SUCCESSFACTORS HCM SUITE)
THR85 (SUCCESSFACTORS HCM SUITE)

Succession Org Chart and Lineage Chart 8% - 12%
Customize talent review fields used in the Succession Org Chart.
THR80 (SUCCESSFACTORS HCM SUITE)
THR85 (SUCCESSFACTORS HCM SUITE)

Talent Pools 8% - 12%
Configure MDF Talent Pools and link them to MDF picklists.
THR80 (SUCCESSFACTORS HCM SUITE)
THR85 (SUCCESSFACTORS HCM SUITE)

Talent Search 8% - 12%
Customize Talent Search weights, rankings and field types.
THR80 (SUCCESSFACTORS HCM SUITE)
THR85 (SUCCESSFACTORS HCM SUITE)

Processes and Presentations 8% - 12%
Create processes and presentations and work with the successor import and the nomination history.
THR80 (SUCCESSFACTORS HCM SUITE)
THR85 (SUCCESSFACTORS HCM SUITE)

Matrix Grid Reports 8% - 12%
Modify the Matrix Grid Reports.
THR80 (SUCCESSFACTORS HCM SUITE)
THR85 (SUCCESSFACTORS HCM SUITE)

General Information
All SAP consultant certifications are available as Cloud Certifications in the Certification Hub and can be booked with product code CER006. With CER006 – SAP Certification in the Cloud, you can take up to six exams attempts of your choice in one year – from wherever and whenever it suits you! Test dates can be chosen and booked individually.

Each specific certification comes with its own set of preparation tactics. We define them as "Topic Areas" and they can be found on each exam description. You can find the number of questions, the duration of the exam, what areas you will be tested on, and recommended course work and content you can reference.

Certification exams might contain unscored items that are being tested for upcoming releases of the exam. These unscored items are randomly distributed across the certification topics and are not counted towards the final score. The total number of items of an examination as advertised in the Training Shop is never exceeded when unscored items are used.

Please be aware that the professional- level certification also requires several years of practical on-the-job experience and addresses real-life scenarios.

For more information refer to our FAQs.
SAP Global Certification FAQ - Overview
SAP Global Certification FAQ - Exam Process
SAP Global Certification FAQ - Post-Exam Process

Safeguarding the Value of Certification
SAP Education has worked hard together with the Certification & Enablement Influence Council to enhance the value of certification and improve the exams. An increasing number of customers and partners are now looking towards certification as a reliable benchmark to safeguard their investments. Unfortunately, the increased demand for certification has brought with it a growing number of people who to try and attain SAP certification through unfair means. This ongoing issue has prompted SAP Education to place a new focus on test security. Please take a look at our post to understand what you can do to help to protect the credibility of your certification status.

Our Certification Test Security Guidelines will help you as test taker to understand the testing experience.

Security Guidelines

QUESTION: No: 1
To permanently remove a position from the system when importing the legacy position file,
what should the Action column include?
Please choose the correct answer.
Response:

A. Reactivate
B. Purge
C. A 'nuII' value
D. Delete

Answer: B

QUESTION: No: 2
Prior to implementing Succession Management, your customer gathered talent review information. The
customer wants to import the risk of loss and impact of loss for users.
Where in Admin Tools does the customer import this data?
Please choose the correct answer.
Response:

A. Under Succession -> Position Management -> Import Positions
B. Under Employee Files -> Employee Fields
C. Under Update User Information -> Import Extended User Information -> Personal Information
D. Under Update User Information -> Import Extended User Information -> Background Information

Answer: C

QUESTION: No: 3
Your customer conducted a talent search. When the customer analyzes the results, some fields are blank.
What are likely reasons for this?
There are 2 correct answers to this question.
Response:

A. Data does NOT exist for that field.
B. Fields are NOT added to the talent search settings under Admin Tools.
C. Fields are NOT configured in the talent search section of the Succession Data ModeI.
D. The user does NOT have permission to view the data.

Answer: A,D

 

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300-215 Conducting Forensic Analysis and Incident Response Using Cisco CyberOps Technologies (CBRFIR) Exam

 

CBRFIR Certification: Cisco Certified CyberOps Professional, Cisco Certified CyberOps Specialist – CyberOps Forensic Analysis and Incident Response
Duration: 90 minutes
Available languages: English

Exam overview
This exam tests your knowledge and skills related to cybersecurity forensic analysis and incident response, including:

Incident response process and playbooks
Advanced incident response
Threat intelligence
Digital forensics concepts
Evidence collection and analysis
Principles of reverse engineering

Exam preparation

Official Cisco training
Conducting Forensic Analysis and Incident Response Using Cisco Technologies for CyberOps (CBRFIR)

Exam Description: Conducting Forensic Analysis and Incident Response Using Cisco Technologies for CyberOps v1.0 (CBRFIR 300-215) is a 90-minute exam that is associated with the Cisco CyberOps Professional Certification. This exam tests a candidate's knowledge of forensic analysis and incident response fundamentals, techniques, and processes. The course Conducting Forensic Analysis and Incident Response Using Cisco Technologies for CyberOps helps candidates to prepare for this exam.

The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any specific delivery of the exam. To better reflect the contents of the exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time without notice.

20% 1.0 Fundamentals
1.1 Analyze the components needed for a root cause analysis report
1.2 Describe the process of performing forensics analysis of infrastructure network devices
1.3 Describe antiforensic tactics, techniques, and procedures
1.4 Recognize encoding and obfuscation techniques (such as, base 64 and hex encoding)
1.5 Describe the use and characteristics of YARA rules (basics) for malware identification, classification, and documentation
1.6 Describe the role of:
1.6.a hex editors (HxD, Hiew, and Hexfiend) in DFIR investigations
1.6.b disassemblers and debuggers (such as, Ghidra, Radare, and Evans Debugger) to perform basic malware analysis
1.6.c deobfuscation tools (such as, XORBruteForces, xortool, and unpacker)
1.7 Describe the issues related to gathering evidence from virtualized environments (major cloud vendors)

20% 2.0 Forensics Techniques
2.1 Recognize the methods identified in the MITRE attack framework to perform fileless malware analysis
2.2 Determine the files needed and their location on the host
2.3 Evaluate output(s) to identify IOC on a host
2.3.a process analysis
2.3.b log analysis
2.4 Determine the type of code based on a provided snippet
2.5 Construct Python, PowerShell, and Bash scripts to parse and search logs or multiple data sources (such as, Cisco Umbrella, Sourcefire IPS, AMP for Endpoints, AMP for Network, and PX Grid)
2.6 Recognize purpose, use, and functionality of libraries and tools (such as, Volatility, Systernals, SIFT tools, and TCPdump)

30% 3.0 Incident Response Techniques
3.1 Interpret alert logs (such as, IDS/IPS and syslogs)
3.2 Determine data to correlate based on incident type (host-based and network-based activities)
3.3 Determine attack vectors or attack surface and recommend mitigation in a given scenario
3.4 Recommend actions based on post-incident analysis
3.5 Recommend mitigation techniques for evaluated alerts from firewalls, intrusion prevention systems (IPS), data analysis tools (such as, Cisco Umbrella Investigate, Cisco Stealthwatch, and Cisco SecureX), and other systems to responds to cyber incidents
3.6 Recommend a response to 0 day exploitations (vulnerability management)
3.7 Recommend a response based on intelligence artifacts
3.8 Recommend the Cisco security solution for detection and prevention, given a scenario
3.9 Interpret threat intelligence data to determine IOC and IOA (internal and external sources)
3.10 Evaluate artifacts from threat intelligence to determine the threat actor profile
3.11 Describe capabilities of Cisco security solutions related to threat intelligence (such as, Cisco Umbrella, Sourcefire IPS, AMP for Endpoints, and AMP for Network)

15% 4.0 Forensics Processes
4.1 Describe antiforensic techniques (such as, debugging, Geo location, and obfuscation)
4.2 Analyze logs from modern web applications and servers (Apache and NGINX)
4.3 Analyze network traffic associated with malicious activities using network monitoring tools (such as, NetFlow and display filtering in Wireshark)
4.4 Recommend next step(s) in the process of evaluating files based on distinguished characteristics of files in a given scenario
4.5 Interpret binaries using objdump and other CLI tools (such as, Linux, Python, and Bash)

15% 5.0 Incident Response Processes
5.1 Describe the goals of incident response
5.2 Evaluate elements required in an incident response playbook
5.3 Evaluate the relevant components from the ThreatGrid report
5.4 Recommend next step(s) in the process of evaluating files from endpoints and performing ad-hoc scans in a given scenario
5.5 Analyze threat intelligence provided in different formats (such as, STIX and TAXII)

QUESTION 1
A security team is discussing lessons learned and suggesting process changes after a security breach incident. During the incident, members of the security team failed to report the abnormal system activity due to
a high project workload. Additionally, when the incident was identified, the response took six hours due to management being unavailable to provide the approvals needed. Which two steps will prevent these issues
from occurring in the future? (Choose two.)

A. Introduce a priority rating for incident response workloads.
B. Provide phishing awareness training for the fill security team.
C. Conduct a risk audit of the incident response workflow.
D. Create an executive team delegation plan.
E. Automate security alert timeframes with escalation triggers.

Correct Answer: A,E

QUESTION 2
An engineer is investigating a ticket from the accounting department in which a user discovered an unexpected application on their workstation. Several alerts are seen from the intrusion detection system of unknown outgoing internet traffic from this workstation. The engineer also notices a degraded processing capability, which complicates the analysis process. Which two actions should the engineer take? (Choose two.)

A. Restore to a system recovery point.
B. Replace the faulty CPU.
C. Disconnect from the network.
D. Format the workstation drives.
E. Take an image of the workstation.

Correct Answer: A,E

QUESTION 3
What is a concern for gathering forensics evidence in public cloud environments?

A. High Cost: Cloud service providers typically charge high fees for allowing cloud forensics.
B. Configuration: Implementing security zones and proper network segmentation.
C. Timeliness: Gathering forensics evidence from cloud service providers typically requires substantial time.
D. Multitenancy: Evidence gathering must avoid exposure of data from other tenants.

Correct Answer: D

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PMI CAPM Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Exam

Regardless of your career stage, the Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM)® is an asset that will distinguish you in the job market and enhance your credibility and effectiveness working on — or with — project teams.

Organizations with standardized practices attain better results, as shown in our 2015 Pulse of the Profession® report. Because the CAPM® recognizes your knowledge of the profession’s preeminent global standard, you’ll stand out to employers and be poised to move ahead.

Project management is a rapidly growing profession. Through 2020, 1.57 million new jobs will be created each year and qualified practitioners are in demand. With the CAPM, you’ll be on the fast track to opportunity.

Student Bundle
Students can submit one application form to join PMI as a student member and take the CAPM exam at the member discount rate.

Learn more about becoming a student member.

Who Should Apply?
If you’d like to manage larger projects and gain more responsibility or add project management skills into your current role, then the Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) is right for you.
Gain and Maintain Your CAPM

The certification exam has 150 questions, and you have three hours to complete it.
To maintain your CAPM, you must retake the exam every five years.

Prerequisites
Secondary degree (high school diploma, associate’s degree or the global equivalent)
23 hours of project management education completed by the time you sit for the exam. Our Project Management Basics online course fulfills this educational prerequisite.

QUESTION 1
Which document defines how a project is executed, monitored and controlled, and closed?

A. Strategic plan
B. Project charter
C. Project management plan
D. Service level agreement

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which changes occur in risk and uncertainty as well as the cost of changes as the life cycle of a typical project progresses?

A. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes increases.
B. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes decreases.
C. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes increases.
D. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes decreases.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which tool or technique is used in the Plan Scope Management process?

A. Document analysis
B. Observations
C. Product analysis
D. Expert judgment

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which tool or technique is an examination of industry and specific vendor capabilities?

A. Independent estimates
B. Market research
C. Analytical techniques
D. Bidder conferences

Correct Answer: B

Section: Volume A

QUESTION 5
An input used in developing the communications management plan is:

A. Communication models.
B. Enterprise environmental factors.
C. Organizational communications.
D. Organizational cultures and styles.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Regression analysis, failure mode and effect analysis (FMEA), fault tree analysis (FTA), and trend analysis are examples of which tool or technique?

A. Expert judgment
B. Forecasting methods
C. Earned value management
D. Analytical techniques

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
The Perform Quality Assurance process occurs in which Process Group?

A. Executing
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Initiating
D. Planning

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Enterprise environmental factors are an input to which process?

A. Control Scope
B. Define Scope
C. Plan Scope Management
D. Collect Requirements

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which process develops options and actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to project objectives?

A. Identify Risks
B. Control Risks
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Plan Risk Responses

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
The process of establishing the policies, procedures, and documentation for planning, developing, managing, executing, and controlling the project schedule is known as:

A. Plan Schedule Management.
B. Develop Project Charter.
C. Develop Schedule.
D. Plan Scope Management.

Correct Answer: A


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1Y0-403 Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops 7 Assessment, Design and Advanced Configurations Exam

Citrix Education is pleased to announce the availability of the next generation Citrix Certified Expert – Virtualization (CCE – V) certification based on Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops 7. Be among the first to take and pass the NEW 1Y0-403 Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops 7 Assessment, Design and Advanced Configurations exam.

With the release of the 1Y0-403 exam, we’re also announcing the discontinuation of the English version of the 1Y0-402 Citrix XenApp and XenDesktop 7.15 Assessment, Design and Advanced Configurations exam effective June 30, 2020.

What does this mean for you?
Individuals pursuing the Citrix Certified Expert – Virtualization (CCE – V) certification will have the option of selecting one of two exams to validate their knowledge, skills and experience until June 30, 2020.

Option 1:
Attain the Citrix Certified Professional – Virtualization (CCP – V) certification
Prepare with the recommended training: CWS-415 Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops 7 Assessment, Design and Advanced Configuration
Review the associated 1Y0-403 exam prep guide
Pass exam 1Y0-403 Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops 7 Assessment, Design and Advanced Configurations.

Option 2:
Attain the Citrix Certified Professional – Virtualization (CCP – V) certification
Prepare with the recommended training: CWS-415 Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops 7 Assessment, Design and Advanced Configuration
Review the associated 1Y0-402 exam prep guide
Pass exam 1Y0-402 Citrix XenApp and XenDesktop 7.15 Assessment, Design and Advanced Configurations.

Effective June 30, 2020, with the discontinuation of the English version of the 1Y0-402 exam, Option 1 will be the only valid path to attain the CCE – V certification.

For individuals who already hold the CCE – V certification, you can update your certification and stay current by taking and passing only one exam — 1Y0-403 — or by attending the instructor-led training course CWS-415 Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops 7 Assessment, Design and Advanced Configuration. Please note that the discontinuation of the 1Y0-402 exam will have no effect on your current CCE – V certification status. Your CCE – V certification will remain valid for three years from the date attained.

QUESTION 1
Scenario: Currently, the user interface for a Citrix Apps and Desktops environment is presented in English,
but a planned on-premises expansion in Poland will support 100 new users with a requirement to use all Polish interfaces.
Two constraints were identified by a Citrix Architect:
Network bandwidth is low and unstable.
Network latency is higher than 300 ms to the existing Site.
How should the architect deploy Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops for these users?

A. Install a StoreFront server in Poland.
B. Implement Citrix Cloud Gateway in Europe.
C. Add a Satellite Zone to the existing Site.
D. Create a new Site in Poland.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Scenario: A planning document for deploying a new Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops Site specifies that it will
be created with 1 Site and different zones ini each of 3 regions. The IT team expects that each zone will host
825 concurrent user sessions, with no more than 28 concurrent session launches.
What is the minimum acceptable Site-to-Site bandwidth required between the Primary Zone and a Satellite Zone?

A. 1 Kbps
B. 200 Mbps
C. 2 Mbps
D. 8 Gbps

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Scenario: A Citrix Architect designed an active-passive Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops environment, where
the passive data center serves as the disaster recovery (DR) data center for all users. Twelve items have been configured:
Citrix ADC Global Server Load Balancing (GSLB) to provide single URL direction to the active data center.
GSLB has health monitors configured for the load balanced servers.
Citrix Gateways are on both data centers.
Citrix ADC load balancing occurs for StoreFront and Delivery Controller XML services.
A single Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops Site exists.
Four Delivery Controllers are members of the Site.
Two Delivery Controllers are members of the Primary Zone in the active data center.
Two Delivery Controllers are members of the Satellite Zone in the passive data center.
SQL is deployed in the active data center.
Local Host Cache is enabled.
Two StoreFront servers are deployed in each data center aggregating resources from the Delivery
Controllers in the respective data center.
Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machines are deployed in both data centers and configured to register with
Delivery Controllers in their zone.
What would happen if the Delivery Controllers in the primary data center were turned off?

A. VDA machines from the primary data center would register with the Delivery Controllers in the passive data center.
B. StoreFront in the primary data center would still be able to launch sessions.
C. GSLB will start redirecting connections to the secondary data center.
D. GSLB will NOT identify that the Delivery Controllers are down and sessions CANNOT launch.

Correct Answer: B

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1Y0-312 Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops 7 Advanced Administration Exam

We have prepared Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops 7 Advanced Administration (1Y0-312) certification sample questions to make you aware of actual exam properties. This sample question set provides you with information about the CCP-V exam pattern, question formate, a difficulty level of questions and time required to answer each question. To get familiar with Citrix Certified Professional - Virtualization (CCP-V) exam, we suggest you try our Sample Citrix 1Y0-312 Certification Practice Exam in simulated Citrix certification exam environment.

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QUESTION 1
Scenario: There are two domains in an organization: Domain A and Domain B. A Citrix Engineer configured
SAML authentication for Domain A, without implementing Citrix Federated Authentication Service (FAS).
While launching the Citrix apps, the Single Sign-on will __________.

A. work for users from Domain A and NOT for users from Domain B
B. work for users from Domain B and NOT for users from Domain A
C. work for the users from Domain A and Domain B
D. NOT work for the users from Domain A and Domain B

Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer is managing a large environment with multiple locations. The setup is as follows:
- The setup has a single Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops site with multiple zones such as a Primary zone and 3 Satellite zones.
-Virtual Delivery Agents (VDAs) are available for all applications in all 3 Satellite zones.
-An application 'app1' has its application database located in Satellite zone.
-As a sovereign mandate, it is desirable that this application database should NOT be accessible from zones 2 and 3.
-The application does NOT create any database cache and cannot work if the database is NOT reachable. -
The outage is acceptable for complying with the sovereign mandate.
Which zone preference should the engineer configure to achieve this setup?

A. Mandatory application home to Satellite zone 1
B. User home to Satellite zone 1
C. Mandatory user home to Satellite zone 1
D. Application home to Satellite zone 1

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer noticed that a Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops environment lost connection to the
SQL servers where the Citrix databases are running. Due to this, the Site has become unmanaged and firsttime users CANNOT connect to their Citrix Virtual Apps & Desktops resources.
The setup was recently upgraded from Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops 7.11 to Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops 7.15 CU4.
What should the engineer do to minimize the impact of the SQL outage?

A. Enable Connection Leasing.
B. Enable IntelliCache.
C. Enable Local Host Cache.
D. Configure Citrix Database Cache.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A Citrix Engineer wants to enable the "Log Off Web Portal When Session is Launched" feature within
Workspace Environment Management (WEM) transformer settings.
What does the engineer need to do prior to enabling this feature?

A. Set Workspace control to NOT automatically reconnect to the sessions when users log onto StoreFront.
B. Set Workspace control settings to log off from session when users log off from StoreFront.
C. Set Workspace control to automatically reconnect to the sessions when users log onto StoreFront.
D. Set Workspace control settings to NOT log off a session when users log off from StoreFront.

Correct Answer: B


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1Y0-312 Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops 7 Advanced Administration Exam

We have prepared Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops 7 Advanced Administration (1Y0-312) certification sample questions to make you aware of actual exam properties. This sample question set provides you with information about the CCP-V exam pattern, question formate, a difficulty level of questions and time required to answer each question. To get familiar with Citrix Certified Professional - Virtualization (CCP-V) exam, we suggest you try our Sample Citrix 1Y0-312 Certification Practice Exam in simulated Citrix certification exam environment.

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QUESTION 1
Scenario: There are two domains in an organization: Domain A and Domain B. A Citrix Engineer configured
SAML authentication for Domain A, without implementing Citrix Federated Authentication Service (FAS).
While launching the Citrix apps, the Single Sign-on will __________.

A. work for users from Domain A and NOT for users from Domain B
B. work for users from Domain B and NOT for users from Domain A
C. work for the users from Domain A and Domain B
D. NOT work for the users from Domain A and Domain B

Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer is managing a large environment with multiple locations. The setup is as follows:
- The setup has a single Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops site with multiple zones such as a Primary zone and 3 Satellite zones.
-Virtual Delivery Agents (VDAs) are available for all applications in all 3 Satellite zones.
-An application 'app1' has its application database located in Satellite zone.
-As a sovereign mandate, it is desirable that this application database should NOT be accessible from zones 2 and 3.
-The application does NOT create any database cache and cannot work if the database is NOT reachable. -
The outage is acceptable for complying with the sovereign mandate.
Which zone preference should the engineer configure to achieve this setup?

A. Mandatory application home to Satellite zone 1
B. User home to Satellite zone 1
C. Mandatory user home to Satellite zone 1
D. Application home to Satellite zone 1

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer noticed that a Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops environment lost connection to the
SQL servers where the Citrix databases are running. Due to this, the Site has become unmanaged and firsttime users CANNOT connect to their Citrix Virtual Apps & Desktops resources.
The setup was recently upgraded from Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops 7.11 to Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops 7.15 CU4.
What should the engineer do to minimize the impact of the SQL outage?

A. Enable Connection Leasing.
B. Enable IntelliCache.
C. Enable Local Host Cache.
D. Configure Citrix Database Cache.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A Citrix Engineer wants to enable the "Log Off Web Portal When Session is Launched" feature within
Workspace Environment Management (WEM) transformer settings.
What does the engineer need to do prior to enabling this feature?

A. Set Workspace control to NOT automatically reconnect to the sessions when users log onto StoreFront.
B. Set Workspace control settings to log off from session when users log off from StoreFront.
C. Set Workspace control to automatically reconnect to the sessions when users log onto StoreFront.
D. Set Workspace control settings to NOT log off a session when users log off from StoreFront.

Correct Answer: B


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Amazon AWS Certified DevOps Engineer Professional Exam

The AWS Certified DevOps Engineer – Professional exam is intended for individuals who perform a DevOps engineer role with two or more years of experience provisioning, operating, and managing AWS environments.

Abilities Validated by the Certification
Implement and manage continuous delivery systems and methodologies on AWS
Implement and automate security controls, governance processes, and compliance validation
Define and deploy monitoring, metrics, and logging systems on AWS
Implement systems that are highly available, scalable, and self-healing on the AWS platform
Design, manage, and maintain tools to automate operational processes

Recommended Knowledge and Experience
Experience developing code in at least one high-level programming language
Experience building highly automated infrastructures
Experience administering operating systems
Understanding of modern development and operations processes and methodologies

Prepare for Your Exam
There is no better preparation than hands-on experience. There are many relevant AWS Training courses and other resources to assist you with acquiring additional knowledge and skills to prepare for certification. Please review the exam guide for information about the competencies assessed on the certification exam.

Introduction
The AWS Certified DevOps Engineer – Professional (DOP-CO1) exam validates technical expertise in provisioning, operating, and managing distributed application systems on the AWS platform. It is intended for individuals who perform a DevOps Engineer role.

It validates an examinee’s ability to:
 Implement and manage continuous delivery systems and methodologies on AWS
 Implement and automate security controls, governance processes, and compliance validation
 Define and deploy monitoring, metrics, and logging systems on AWS
 Implement systems that are highly available, scalable, and self-healing on the AWS platform
 Design, manage, and maintain tools to automate operational processes

Recommended AWS Knowledge
 Two or more years’ experience provisioning, operating, and managing AWS environments
 Experience developing code in at least one high-level programming language
 Experience building highly automated infrastructures
 Experience administering operating systems
 Understanding of modern development and operations processes and methodologies

Exam Preparation
These training courses and materials may be helpful for examination preparation:

AWS Training (aws.amazon.com/training)
 DevOps Engineering on AWS - https://aws.amazon.com/training/course-descriptions/devops-engineering/

There are two types of questions on the examination:
 Multiple-choice: Has one correct response option and three incorrect responses (distractors).
 Multiple-response: Has two or more correct responses out of five or more options.

Select one or more responses that best complete the statement or answer the question. Distractors, or incorrect answers, are response options that an examinee with incomplete knowledge or skill would likely choose. However, they are generally plausible responses that fit in the content area defined by the test objective.
Unanswered questions are scored as incorrect; there is no penalty for guessing.

Unscored Content
Your examination may include unscored items that are placed on the test to gather statistical information. These items are not identified on the form and do not affect your score.

Exam Results
The AWS Certified DevOps Engineer Professional (DOP-C01) is a pass or fail exam. The examination is scored against a minimum standard established by AWS professionals who are guided by certification industry best practices and guidelines.

Your results for the examination are reported as a score from 100-1000, with a minimum passing score of 750. Your score shows how you performed on the examination as a whole and whether or not you passed. Scaled scoring models are used to equate scores across multiple exam forms that may have slightly different difficulty levels.
Your score report contains a table of classifications of your performance at each section level. This information is designed to provide general feedback concerning your examination performance. The examination uses a compensatory scoring model, which means that you do not need to “pass” the individual sections, only the overall examination. Each section of the examination has a specific weighting, so some sections have more questions than others. The table contains general information, highlighting your strengths and weaknesses. Exercise caution when interpreting section-level feedback.

Content Outline
This exam guide includes weightings, test domains, and objectives only. It is not a comprehensive listing of the content on this examination. The table below lists the main content domains and their weightings.

Domain 1: SDLC Automation 22%
Domain 2: Configuration Management and Infrastructure as Code 19%
Domain 3: Monitoring and Logging 15%
Domain 4: Policies and Standards Automation 10%
Domain 5: Incident and Event Response 18%
Domain 6: High Availability, Fault Tolerance, and Disaster Recovery 16%

1.2 Determine source control strategies and how to implement them
1.3 Apply concepts required to automate and integrate testing
1.4 Apply concepts required to build and manage artifacts securely
1.5 Determine deployment/delivery strategies (e.g., A/B, Blue/green, Canary, Red/black) and how to implement them using AWS Services

Domain 2: Configuration Management and Infrastructure as Code
2.1 Determine deployment services based on deployment needs
2.2 Determine application and infrastructure deployment models based on business needs
2.3 Apply security concepts in the automation of resource provisioning
2.4 Determine how to implement lifecycle hooks on a deployment
2.5 Apply concepts required to manage systems using AWS configuration management tools and services

Domain 3: Monitoring and Logging
3.1 Determine how to set up the aggregation, storage, and analysis of logs and metrics
3.2 Apply concepts required to automate monitoring and event management of an environment
3.3 Apply concepts required to audit, log, and monitor operating systems, infrastructures, and applications
3.4 Determine how to implement tagging and other metadata strategies

Domain 4: Policies and Standards Automation
4.1 Apply concepts required to enforce standards for logging, metrics, monitoring, testing, and security
4.2 Determine how to optimize cost through automation
4.3 Apply concepts required to implement governance strategies

Domain 5: Incident and Event Response
5.1 Troubleshoot issues and determine how to restore operations
5.2 Determine how to automate event management and alerting
5.3 Apply concepts required to implement automated healing
5.4 Apply concepts required to set up event-driven automated actions

Domain 6: High Availability, Fault Tolerance, and Disaster Recovery
6.1 Determine appropriate use of multi-AZ versus multi-region architectures
6.2 Determine how to implement high availability, scalability, and fault tolerance
6.3 Determine the right services based on business needs (e.g., RTO/RPO, cost)
6.4 Determine how to design and automate disaster recovery strategies
6.5 Evaluate a deployment for points of failure

QUESTION: 1
You have an application which consists of EC2 instances in an Auto Scaling group. Between a
particular time frame every day, there is an increase in traffic to your website. Hence users are
complaining of a poor response time on the application. You have configured your Auto Scaling group
to deploy one new EC2 instance when CPU utilization is greater than 60% for 2 consecutive periods of 5 minutes.
What is the least cost-effective way to resolve this problem?

A. Decrease the consecutive number of collection periods
B. Increase the minimum number of instances in the Auto Scaling group
C. Decrease the collection period to ten minutes
D. Decrease the threshold CPU utilization percentage at which to deploy a new instance

Answer: B

QUESTION: 2
You have decided that you need to change the instance type of your production instances which are
running as part of an AutoScaling group. The entire architecture is deployed using CloudFormation
Template. You currently have 4 instances in Production. You cannot have any interruption in service
and need to ensure 2 instances are always running during the update? Which of the options below
listed can be used for this?

A. AutoScalingRollingUpdate
B. AutoScalingScheduledAction
C. AutoScalingReplacingUpdate
D. AutoScalinglntegrationUpdate

Answer: A

QUESTION: 3
You currently have the following setup in AWS
1) An Elastic Load Balancer
2) Auto Scaling Group which launches EC2 Instances
3) AMIs with your code pre-installed
You want to deploy the updates of your app to only a certain number of users. You want to have a
cost-effective solution. You should also be able to revert back quickly. Which of the below solutions is the most feasible one?

A. Create a second ELB, and a new Auto Scaling Group assigned a new Launch Configuration. Create a
new AMI with the updated app. Use Route53 Weighted Round Robin records to adjust the proportion of traffic hitting the two ELBs.
B. Create new AM Is with the new app. Then use the new EC2 instances in half proportion to the older instances.
C. Redeploy with AWS Elastic Beanstalk and Elastic Beanstalk versions. Use Route 53 Weighted Round
Robin records to adjust the proportion of traffic hitting the two ELBs
D. Create a full second stack of instances, cut the DNS over to the new stack of instances, and change the DNS back if a rollback is needed.

Answer: A

QUESTION: 4
Your application is currently running on Amazon EC2 instances behind a load balancer. Your
management has decided to use a Blue/Green deployment strategy. How should you implement this for each deployment?

A. Set up Amazon Route 53 health checks to fail over from any Amazon EC2 instance that is currently being deployed to.
B. Using AWS CloudFormation, create a test stack for validating the code, and then deploy the code
to each production Amazon EC2 instance.
C. Create a new load balancer with new Amazon EC2 instances, carry out the deployment, and then
switch DNS over to the new load balancer using Amazon Route 53 after testing.
D. Launch more Amazon EC2 instances to ensure high availability, de-register each Amazon EC2
instance from the load balancer, upgrade it, and test it, and then register it again with the load balancer.

Answer: C

QUESTION: 5
You have an application running a specific process that is critical to the application's functionality,
and have added the health check process to your Auto Scaling Group. The instances are showing
healthy but the application itself is not working as it should. What could be the issue with the health check, since it is still showing the instances as healthy.

A. You do not have the time range in the health check properly configured
B. It is not possible for a health check to monitor a process that involves the application
C. The health check is not configured properly
D. The health check is not checking the application process

Answer: D
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